# embedding_metadata

key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Diagnosis</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided laboratory table appears to be related to the evaluation of skin infection cases, specifically focusing on their diagnosis. The context surrounding the table includes questions that emphasize the interpretation of clinical presentations, likely derived from case studies presented in a learning environment. For example, one of the case analyses involves a young boy with skin lesions characterized by "honey-colored crusts," suggesting the possibility of conditions such as impetigo. The questions address crucial aspects such as probable diagnoses, identifying the causative agent, its characteristics, and diagnostic tests that could be requested to confirm the diagnosis.

Within the table, the header is labeled "Diagnosis," but it appears to lack specific data filled in beneath this header, which suggests that the entries are yet to be completed or are intended to be filled in by students as they analyze the cases. Each row, numbered 0 through 5, serves as a placeholder for various aspects of diagnosis related to the case studies discussed. The empty cells below the diagnosis header indicate areas where students may input details about the diagnosis for particular conditions based on the provided case scenarios. This structured approach aids in enforcing the learning objective of developing analytical skills in recognizing and diagnosing skin infections, fostering an interactive educational environment where students engage deeply with the material through case-based learning activities.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>MATCHING TYPE. Match the following parasites in Column A with\ntheir\ncommon names in Column B.\nColumn A\nColumn B</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Fasciolopsis buski\na.\nBlood fluke</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Paragonimus westermani\nb.\nSheep liver fluke</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Fasciola hepatica\nc.\nLung fluke</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Clonorchis sinensis\nd.\nIntestinal fluke</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Chinese liver\nSchistosoma japonicum\ne.\nfluke</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presented outlines a matching exercise designed to connect various parasites listed in Column A with their corresponding common names in Column B. The first row of the table sets the framework for this task, clearly labeling the contents of both columns and indicating that this is a matching type question concerning parasitology. Each entry in Column A represents a specific parasitic organism, while Column B provides a selection of common names associated with those parasites.

In Column A, the parasites include Fasciolopsis buski, Paragonimus westermani, Fasciola hepatica, Clonorchis sinensis, and Schistosoma japonicum. Corresponding to these, Column B contains options such as "Blood fluke," "Sheep liver fluke," "Lung fluke," "Intestinal fluke," and "Chinese liver fluke." The format encourages students or readers to engage with the material actively, reinforcing their understanding of the nomenclature and classifications of various parasitic worms. This type of exercise not only aids in memorization but also enhances the comprehension of the relationships between the scientific names of these parasites and their common identifiers.

The broader context surrounding the table focuses on various characteristics and modes of transmission for different nematodes and trematodes, such as Trichuris trichiura and Wuchereria bancrofti, providing foundational knowledge that complements the matching exercise. The inclusion of questions about the characteristics and transmission methods related to these parasites hints at the importance of understanding the implications of these parasites on health, particularly in terms of disease manifestation and diagnosis. Overall, the table serves as both an educational tool and a reinforcement of the critical concepts associated with parasitology.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Site of Infection\nAssociated Complication</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided context outlines several questions and answers related to parasitic infections caused by nematodes, including specific parasites such as Trichuris trichiura, Wuchereria bancrofti, and others. The accompanying table appears to be formatted to present information about various parasites, focusing on their site of infection and associated complications. However, it has only a header row labeled "Site of Infection Associated Complication" with no additional entries filled in.

Looking closely at the table layout, it lacks specific data points under its headings, meaning that further elaboration about the parasites, their infection sites, or complications could not be provided. The context suggests significant characteristics of mentioned parasites, such as how Trichuris trichiura is referred to as whipworm, which might imply its place in a column that potentially correlates to specific traits or conditions related to these parasites. Similarly, Wuchereria bancrofti is noted for being a common cause of elephantiasis, indicating critical inflection points for diagnosis and treatment efforts that likely require elaboration in an adequately filled table.

Furthermore, the table structure indicates a system where one might typically expect to see direct correlations between parasites and their clinical manifestations or sites of infection. Each parasite's corresponding row under the appropriate columns would normally provide a succinct characterization of its impacts on human health. Unfortunately, since the entries are absent, the table does not currently serve its intended purpose of conveying practical medical knowledge, which is clearly emphasized in the context surrounding it.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Score:\nDate:\nc.\nPertussis\nd.\nDiphtheria</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided table appears to be associated with a medical examination or quiz related to infectious diseases, particularly focusing on pneumonia and the pathogens responsible for various infections. It consists of a grid layout that organizes specific information, potentially linked to the scoring of answers given during an evaluative process or case study assessment. The first row features a header that indicates a score and date, possibly for recording the result of an individual's response to a series of questions.

In the subsequent rows, there is a mention of "Score:\nDate:\nc.\nPertussis\nd.\nDiphtheria," which suggests that the table is utilized for documenting the answers related to causative agents of specific diseases, likely in a multiple-choice format. Pertussis, caused by Bordetella pertussis, and Diphtheria, caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, indicate that these infectious agents are part of the quiz, emphasizing the importance of identifying pathogens correctly in clinical scenarios. The presence of blank rows implies that there might be additional data or responses that were not filled out, which could represent other questions or metrics relevant to the scoring process.

Surrounding the table is context discussing various cases, symptoms, and diagnostic questions regarding lung infections, such as pulmonary tuberculosis, its symptoms like weight loss, blood-streaked sputum, and associated fevers. These clinical scenarios hint at the higher purpose of the table, which could be part of an instructional exercise to assess knowledge on infectious diseases, diagnostic procedures, and prevention methods, including those mentioned in the context like good hygiene and vaccination. The table thus serves as a functional tool in medical education, where identifying infectious agents and understanding their implications in patient care is crucial.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Column B\nThreadworm</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Pinworm</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Malayan filarial worm</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Whipworm</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>New World\nhookworm</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Pudoc worm</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Muscle worm</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table provided is a structured categorization of different types of parasitic worms, each commonly known for causing various infections in humans. The first column of the table represents an index number for each distinct worm listed, starting from zero to six. The second column, designated as "Column B," describes the specific type of parasitic worm, revealing a diverse range of organisms associated with human and animal health.

Among the listed parasites, "Threadworm" and "Pinworm" are notable for their prevalence in childhood infections, particularly in younger populations where pinworm infections often result in intense itching and discomfort. "Malayan filarial worm" is included, indicating its significance in conditions such as lymphatic filariasis, which can lead to severe swelling and complications if left untreated. Other entries such as "Whipworm," "New World hookworm," and "Pudoc worm" suggest a broader context of intestinal parasites that can cause various gastrointestinal issues, malnutrition, and anemia. Lastly, "Muscle worm," likely referring to Trichinella spiralis, is particularly relevant in discussions around the transmission of larvae through undercooked meat, emphasizing the need for proper food safety measures.

The context surrounding the table indicates a pedagogical focus on analyzing case studies related to skin infections, where an understanding of these parasitic organisms is essential. With specific questions about diagnosis, causative agents, and laboratory tests to establish these conditions, the table complements the educational aim of enhancing students' abilities to interpret symptoms and link them to potential parasitic causes. This integrated approach deepens the comprehension of how parasites are involved in medical conditions presented in various case studies, ultimately fostering a more nuanced understanding of infectious diseases in the field of nursing and microbiology.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Column B\nHepatitis A\nvirus</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Hepatitis B virus</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Hepatitis C\nvirus</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Hepatitis D\nvirus</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Hepatitis E virus</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>b and c only</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>b, c, and d only</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>a and b only</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided content deals with various infectious diseases, specifically focusing on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and their causative agents, as well as urinary tract infections (UTIs). In the context of viral infections, the table lists several hepatitis viruses, which are significant in understanding liver-related diseases. The first column of the table seems to correspond to different hepatitis viruses, while the second column compiles various responses or categorizations associated with those viruses.

Column B, as indicated in the table's structure, includes notable viruses such as Hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E. Each virus is crucial for recognizing potential health risks and appropriate treatments. The table also includes entries such as 'b and c only,' which suggest possible combinations or characteristics of the listed viruses, hinting at the interconnectedness of hepatitis infections and their implications on public health. The organization into rows and corresponding values in the table allows for a comparative understanding of these viruses and aids in clinical differentiation.

The surrounding context elaborates on STIs, further emphasizing the importance of detecting and identifying infectious agents accurately. It poses questions about the etiological agents and tests for these conditions, indicating a clear need for awareness regarding the transmission and prevention of these infections. The focus on viral hepatitis underscores the relevance of these infections in broader discussions about STD management and prevention strategies. Overall, the table serves as a useful reference in identifying and categorizing hepatitis viruses alongside common inquiries related to other infectious diseases presented in the context.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Column B\na.</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Respiratory syncytial\nvirus</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>b.</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>SARS-CoV-2</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>c.</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Mycoplasma pneumoniae</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Legionella pneumophila</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>d.</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>e.</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>Adenovirus</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided table presents a classification of various viral agents associated with respiratory infections, indicated in Column A and corresponding options in Column B. Each option is labeled straightforwardly by its alphabetical designation, creating a clear and organized format for examining the agents linked to pulmonary diseases. The table is structured with an empty first column that serves as an index, while the second column lists the viral agents alongside references to additional qualifications or categorizations marked with letters.

Column A includes the index numbers, enhancing the usability of the table by allowing the reader to easily navigate through the listed agents. Corresponding to these index numbers, Column B mentions specific viruses, such as the Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), SARS-CoV-2, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila, and Adenovirus, each indicating a pathogenic microorganism with implications in respiratory infections. The format enables readers to identify the viral agents efficiently and comprehend their relevance to specific infectious disease contexts.

In the surrounding context, the focus is on a case analysis discussing liver-related ailments, including their signs, symptoms, and associated pathogens like Hepatitis viruses. This backdrop highlights the critical role of viral agents detailed in the table, as they are significant contributors to respiratory illnesses that may complicate or co-exist with other infections, stressing the intricate network of infectious agents that healthcare professionals must consider in diagnosis and treatment. The interplay between respiratory viruses and liver conditions could emphasize the importance of a comprehensive understanding of pathogens in clinical settings, particularly when analyzing complex cases where multiple infections are present.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
      <th>1</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Column\nGeneralized maculopapular\nc.\nLatent syphilis\n3.\nrash\nd.\nTertiary syphilis\nincluding palms and soles\n4.\nCondylomata lata\n5.\nAortic aneurysm</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Syphilis\nGonorrhea\nCongenital transmission</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Neonatal transmission</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Systemic spread</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Presence of skin lesions</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Purulent discharge\nNan\nne:\nSect\ntion:\nΑ.</td>
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    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided table comprises various aspects of sexually transmitted infections, particularly focusing on conditions like syphilis and its manifestations. The table is structured into two primary columns, labeled “0” and “1,” with a total of six rows, each representing different clinical features or related information. In the first row under column "0," there is a detailed description of several forms of syphilis, including “Generalized maculopapular rash,” “Latent syphilis,” “Tertiary syphilis,” “Condylomata lata,” and the association with “Aortic aneurysm,” which highlights the complications that may arise from untreated syphilis. 

Subsequent rows continue to delve into themes of syphilis and other sexually transmitted infections. The second row under column "0" mentions "Syphilis," "Gonorrhea," and "Congenital transmission," indicating the ways in which these infections can be spread. This row emphasizes the critical concern surrounding congenital transmission, which can affect newborns if the infection is acquired during pregnancy. The following rows address modes of transmission and specific clinical entities. For instance, "Neonatal transmission," "Systemic spread," and "Presence of skin lesions" are outlined in rows three, four, and five, respectively. Each of these elements points to the wide-ranging implications of sexually transmitted infections on both adult and neonatal health. Finally, row five refers to “Purulent discharge,” indicating a potential symptom associated with these infections, thus contributing to a comprehensive understanding of their clinical presentation and implications. 

The structure of the table and the content are interconnected with the surrounding context, which discusses rabies and other symptoms, potentially indicating a broader conversation about infectious diseases and their management. However, the primary focus remains on syphilis and its complications, modes of transmission, and clinical manifestations, as illustrated through the entries in the table. Each aspect presented in the rows serves to educate healthcare professionals on recognizing, diagnosing, and understanding the importance of treating these sexually transmitted infections effectively.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>What is the most probable diagnosis?\nc.\nRoseola infantum\nd.\nErythema infectiosum\nWhat is the most likely causative agent?\nc.\nHuman herpes virus 6\nd.\nRubeola virus\nWhat do you call the pathognomonic enanthem associated with\nc.\nForscheimer spots\nSlapped cheek\nd.\nappearance\nWhat is the most common complication associated with this\nSubacute sclerosing panencephalitis\nWhich of the following exanthems is not vaccine-preventable?\nc.\nRubella\nd.\nChickenpox\nWhich of the following exanthems present with vesicular lesions?\nc.\nSmallpox</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>14</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>15</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>16</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>17</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>18</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presents a series of medical inquiries relevant to various viral infections, particularly focusing on their diagnoses, causative agents, clinical presentations, and complications. To begin with, the first question asks for the most probable diagnosis, providing options such as Roseola infantum and Erythema infectiosum. Following this, there is a question regarding the most likely causative agent, with choices that include Human herpes virus 6 and Rubeola virus, which are significant in pediatric infectious diseases.

Additionally, the table delves into notable clinical signs associated with these infections, presenting a question about the pathognomonic enanthem. Here, options such as Forscheimer spots and slapped cheek appearance are proposed, highlighting important visual indicators that differentiate one exanthem from another. The table also examines potential complications, asking about the most common one associated with the infections in question, with Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis being noted as a serious complication of certain viral infections, particularly measles. 

The table further differentiates between vaccine-preventable diseases by inquiring which of the exanthems listed is not preventable by vaccines, alongside a question aimed at identifying which of the mentioned exanthems manifests vesicular lesions, emphasizing the clinical significance of recognizing the varied presentations across these viral infections. Overall, the structure of the table is designed to guide learners in matching clinical presentations with appropriate diseases, reinforcing important connections between symptoms and diagnosed conditions in pediatric infection management.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
      <th>1</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Chikungunya, 420\nCryptococcus gatti, 387\nC\nCMV\nChlamydia trachomatis, 353, 376\nCryptococcus neoformans, 141, 387\nChocolate agar, 14\nCulture media, 13–16\nCholera, 341\nclassification according to chemical\nChromoblastomycosis, 281\ncomposition, 13\nclassification according to\nChronic bronchitis, 301\nfunctional\nChronic disease, 146\ntype, 14–16\nclassification according to physical\nClostridium difficile, 342-343\nClostridium perfringens, 277, 331,\n342\nClostridium tetani, 389\nstate, 13\nCutaneous mycoses, 280-281\nClassical dengue fever, 418\nCysticercosis, 214\nClindamycin, 96\nCystitis, 368\nClostridium botulinum, 391\nCytomegalovirus (CMV), 423\nCytomegalovirus infection, 423-424\nCytotoxins, 143, 332\nD\nDowney cells, 422\nDeath phase, 47\nDrug modification, 97</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Drug resistance, mechanisms of, 97-\nAlso decline phase\n99</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Decontamination, 64\nacquired, 97</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Definitive hosts, 155\nintrinsic, 97</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Delta hepatitis, 320\nDry heat, methods of, 80-82</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Delta virus\nDTaP</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>See Hepatitis D virus\nSee Diphtheria/Tetanus toxoid and</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>Denaturing agents, 324\nacellular pertussis vaccine</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>Dengue fever, 417-419\nDysentery, 317</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>Dengue hemorrhagic fever, 418\nDyspnea, 300</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>Dengue shock syndrome</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>See Dengue hemorrhagic fever\nE</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Dengvaxia vaccine, 419\nEarly congenital syphilis, 350</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td>Dental calculus, 319\nEBV</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>14</th>
      <td>Dental caries, 319\nSee Epstein-Barr virus</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>15</th>
      <td>Dental plaques, 319\nEchinococcosis, 221</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table appears to be an excerpt from a comprehensive medical reference document, likely related to microbiology or infectious diseases. Within the table, keywords and phrases are organized primarily in two columns, which serve as references to specific conditions, pathogens, treatments, and related topics. The first column is numbered and contains numerous entries with corresponding page references. These entries cover a range of topics including various diseases like Chikungunya, Chronic bronchitis, and different types of hepatitis viruses, indicating a focus on infectious pathogens and their clinical implications.

Notably, keywords like *Cryptococcus neoformans* and *Chlamydia trachomatis* are mentioned, suggesting an emphasis on important bacterial and fungal pathogens relevant to nursing and microbiology. The mention of culture media and specific tests highlights the laboratory aspects pertinent to microbiology. For instance, terms like *Chocolate agar* and *Culture media* signal the types of growth media used in microbiological studies, essential for understanding how these organisms are cultured in laboratory settings for diagnosis and research.

Additionally, the table references various medical conditions with implications for treatment resistance, such as “Drug resistance, mechanisms of,” which hints at the ongoing challenges of managing infectious diseases in clinical practice. The presence of terms like "Dengue fever" and "Dengvaxia vaccine" implies a subset of infectious diseases of significant public health concern, underscoring the need for awareness and understanding of vaccination strategies. Overall, the detailed arrangement of these entries provides a dense, informative overview suitable for practitioners seeking quick access to key topics within the field of microbiology and infectious disease nursing.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Cryptococcus neoformans\nCoccidioides immitis</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>MATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space\nprovided.\nMatch the clinical presentation in Column A with the type of leprosy in\nColumn B</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>a.\nTuberculoid leprosy\nb.\nLepromatous leprosy</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>c.\nBoth a and b\nd.\nNeither a nor b</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Match each of the items in column A with the causative agent in column B.</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Column B</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>a.\nClostridium botulinum</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>b.\nChlamydia trachomatis</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>c.\nHaemophilus ducreyi\nd.\nListeria monocytogenes\ne.\nJapanese B encephalitis</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>virus\nf.\nNeisseria meningitidis\ng.\nCryptococcus neoformans</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>h.\nAdenovirus\ni.\nNeisseria gonorrhoeae</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>j.\nClostridium tetani</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presented contains two main sections, focusing on different aspects of clinical presentations and their associated causative agents, particularly in the context of infectious diseases. In the first section, it outlines an exercise where individuals are required to match clinical presentations related to types of leprosy. It indicates that the matching is between items listed in Column A, which includes labels such as "Tuberculoid leprosy" and "Lepromatous leprosy," and corresponding entries in Column B.

Further down the table, there is another matching exercise where participants are tasked with linking various diseases to their causative agents listed in Column B. Among the pathogens identified are notable bacteria and viruses, such as "Clostridium botulinum," "Chlamydia trachomatis," and "Neisseria meningitidis," as well as fungi like "Cryptococcus neoformans." The mention of specific vectors for diseases, particularly highlighting the relationship between clinical signs and the organisms responsible for various infections, sheds light on the important connections in clinical microbiology.

In addition, the context surrounding the table includes information about specific diseases and their associated symptoms. For instance, it mentions the pathognomonic enanthem associated with measles and provides an overview of common complications and vaccination status of different exanthems, tying together the understanding of microbial infections presented in the table. This emphasizes the relevance of accurately identifying causative agents, as it is crucial for diagnosis, treatment, and preventive measures in nursing and microbiology fields.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
      <th>1</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Which of the following are possible modes of\n4.4.\nc.\nMost present with inapparent infection\ntransmission of rabies?\nd.\nNot preventable by vaccination\n3.\ninfants?\nin\na.\nEscherichia coli\nc.\nFlavivirus\nb.\nHaemophilus influenzae\nd.\nNeisseria meningitidis\nFlaccid paralysis occurs in the following diseases,\n4.\nexcept:\na.\nInfant botulism\nc.\nPoliomyelitis\nb.\nTetanus\nd.\nRabies\na.a.\nCandida albicans\nc.c.\nCryptococcus neoformans\nb.\nHistoplasma capsulatum\nd.\nCoccidioides immitis\nMATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space\nColumn\nprovided.\nI.\nColumn A\nB.\nMatch the clinical presentation in Column A with the type of leprosy in\nColumn B\na.\n1.\nHighly infectious\nTuberculoid leprosy\n2.\nComplete sensory loss\nb.\nLepromatous leprosy\nc.\nPresent with\nBoth a and b\n3.\nhypopigmented\nd.\nlesions\nNeither a nor b\n4.\nLeonine facies\n5.\nNegative lepromin test\nII.\nMatch each of the items in column A with the causative agent in column B.\nColumn A\nColumn B\na.\n1.\nTransmitted by bite of ticks\nClostridium botulinum\nTrismus and risus\nb.\n2.\nsardonicus\nChlamydia trachomatis\nc.\nHaemophilus ducreyi\nAssociated with\nd.\n3.\nunpasteurized honey\nListeria monocytogenes\ne.\nJapanese B encephalitis\nvirus\nInhalation of spores from\nf.\n4.\npigeon droppings\nNeisseria meningitidis\n5.\nOphthalmia neonatorum\ng.\nCryptococcus neoformans\nh.\nCold-loving bacteria\n6.\nAdenovirus\nWaterhouse-Friderichsen\n7.\ni.\nsyndrome\nNeisseria gonorrhoeae</td>
      <td>Which of the following is the most common cause of meningitis</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Swimming pool\nj.\n8.\nconjunctivitis\nClostridium tetani</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presented is structured to facilitate a matching exercise, where participants are required to correlate elements from Column A with their respective counterparts in Column B. It features clinical presentations related to various infectious diseases alongside potential causative agents. The first row of the table, marked with column identifiers "0" and "1", introduces the primary interaction where questions regarding modes of transmission and pathogens are presented.

In Column A, the table begins with a question concerning possible modes of transmission for rabies, providing options such as "Escherichia coli," "Haemophilus influenzae," "Flavivirus," and "Neisseria meningitidis." Following this, the table also examines flaccid paralysis, asking which diseases it does not occur in among options that include "Infant botulism," "Tetanus," "Poliomyelitis," and "Rabies." A deeper dive into fungal infections is indicated with options like "Candida albicans," "Histoplasma capsulatum," "Cryptococcus neoformans," and "Coccidioides immitis." 

The final segment of Column A features a matching type exercise specifically targeting the classification of leprosy types and their clinical presentations. This includes descriptions of highly infectious strains, complete sensory loss, and other relevant attributes linked to Tuberculoid and Lepromatous leprosy. Column B complements these questions with direct inquiries about causative agents and clinical signs, providing an in-depth examination of infectious diseases, their epidemiology, and implications for public health. Moreover, the structure suggests an educational intent, likely aimed at training nursing professionals on critical aspects of microbiology and infectious disease management.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
      <th>1</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>3.\nPainful vesicles along the\nc.\nChickenpox\nMatch the clinical presentation in Column A with the condition in Column\nI.I.\nB.B.\ndermatome\nd.\nZika\n4.\nTotally eradicated by\ne.\nSmallpox\nvaccination\nf.\nShingles\nItchy vesicles in crops in\n5.\ng.\nRubella\ndifferent stages\n6.\nCrippling arthritis\n7.\nBranny desquamation\nPost-auricular\n8.\nlymphadenopathy\nSubacute sclerosing\n9.\npanencephalitis\n10.\nCongenital heart defect\nII.\nMatch the infection in Column A with the causative agent in Column B.\nColumn A\nColumn B\nHuman herpes virus\n1.\nMeasles\na.\n6\n2.\nErythema infectiosum\nb.\nVaricella-zoster virus\n3.\nChickenpox\nc.\nParvovirus B19\n4.\nGerman measles\nd.\nRubella virus\n5.\nRoseola infantum\ne.\nRubeola virus\nName:\nScore:\nSection:\nDate:\nLEARNING OBJECTIVE\nAt the end of the laboratory period, the student should be able to develop the\nskills\nin analyzing cases related to selected systemic infections.\nCASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then answer the following\nA.\nquestions. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space provided.\nCase: A 7-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room because of nose\nbleeding (epistaxis) and vomiting of blood (hematemesis). The patient was\napparently well until 7 days prior to admission when the patient developed\nmoderate- to high-grade fever, headache, and muscle pains over the lower\nextremities. Two days prior to admission, maculopapular rashes were noted\nover the trunk and extremities. Few minutes prior to admission, the patient had</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>3.3.\nWhich of the following is correct regarding this case?\na.\nIt is caused by a DNA virus.\nb.\nThe vector is Aedes aegypti.\nc.\nIt is characterized by atypical lymphocytes.</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided content includes a structured table that organizes clinical presentations and infections with their corresponding causative agents. It seems to present two main tasks: the first section requires matching the clinical presentation described in Column A to the infection listed in Column B. For instance, one entry in Column A describes “Painful vesicles along the dermatome,” which correlates with the condition “Chickenpox” among other conditions listed, such as Zika and Shingles. Additionally, it notes symptoms like “Itchy vesicles in crops in different stages,” which further emphasizes the need to connect various clinical features to specific diseases. 

The second part of the table involves identifying the causative agent of certain infections. Entities such as "Human herpes virus" and "Erythema infectiosum" are presented alongside their respective causative agents, which include the Varicella-zoster virus for Chickenpox and the Rubella virus for German measles. This dual-layered matching exercise aims to reinforce the connection between clinical presentations of systemic infections and their underlying microbial causes, thereby enhancing understanding and clinical reasoning in infectious diseases.

Within the surrounding context, relevant information about various arthropod-borne infections is discussed, including the transmission pathways and types of infections like Dengue fever. Specific questions about the nature of these infections, their vectors, and preventive strategies underscore the educational goal of the exercise, allowing students to analyze a case study involving a child with symptoms such as epistaxis and hematemesis, potentially linking these presentations to the various infections highlighted in the table. Overall, the organization of the content in the table serves as a practical tool for learning about the manifestations and causative agents of key infectious diseases, allowing for a comprehensive review of significant clinical knowledge necessary for nursing and medical fields.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
      <th>1</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Dermatophytes, 280\nEchinococcus granulosus, 219-221\nDessication, 82\nEctoparasites, 154</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Diarrhea, 326-327\nEfflux pump, 98</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>invasive, 326\nEhrlich, Paul, 5</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>non-invasive, 326\nEhrlichia chaffeensis, 428</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Diatoms, 26\nEhrlichia sennetsu, 428</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Differential media, 15\nEhrlichiosis, 425</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Digenea, 225\nELISA</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>Dinoflagellate, 26\nSee Enzyme-linked immunosorbent</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>Diphtheria, 299-300\nassay</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>Diphtheria/Tetanus toxoid and\nEncephalitis, 383, 388\nacellular</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>pertussis (DTaP) vaccine, 300\nEncephalomyelitis, 383</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>Diphtheria toxin, 144, 299\nEncystation, 171</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Diphyllobothriasis, 216-217\nEndemic typhus, 425, 427</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td>Diphyllobothrium latum, 215–217\nEndoflagella, 35</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>14</th>
      <td>Diplococci, 31\nEndogenous, 145</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>15</th>
      <td>Discrete erythematous, 393\nEndoparasites, 154</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>16</th>
      <td>Disinfection, 68\nEndospores, 37</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>17</th>
      <td>Dorner stain, 278\nEndotoxins, 143</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>18</th>
      <td>Enrichment media, 14\nEumycotic mycetoma, 282\nEntamoeba histolytica, 172\nExanthems, 403</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>19</th>
      <td>Enteric fever, 337\nExcystation, 171</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>20</th>
      <td>Enteric hepatitis, 324\nExfoliative toxin, 273</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>21</th>
      <td>Enteric viruses, 327\nExogenous, 145</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>22</th>
      <td>Enteritis necroticans, 342\nExotoxins, 150</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>23</th>
      <td>Enteritis, 317\nEye infections, 375-379</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>24</th>
      <td>Enterobiasis, 248-249\nbacterial, 376-377</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>25</th>
      <td>Enterobius vermicularis, 246-249\nviral, 378-379</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>26</th>
      <td>Enterococcus faecalis, 367</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>27</th>
      <td>Enterococcus, 65, 66\nF</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>28</th>
      <td>Enterocolitis, 337\nFacultative organisms, 45</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>29</th>
      <td>Enterotest, 178, 233\nFacultative parasites, 154</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>30</th>
      <td>Enterotoxin, 329\nFascioliasis, 233</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>31</th>
      <td>Enzyme-linked immunosorbent</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided table contains a diverse array of microbiological terms and corresponding numerical references, likely indicating their location in a larger text, such as a textbook or reference guide. The first column lists various topics associated with infections and pathogens, including terms like "Dermatophytes," "Echinococcus granulosus," and "Diphtheria," along with their corresponding page numbers or sections. For instance, "Dermatophytes" refers to fungi that cause skin infections, found on page 280, while key terms like "Ehrlichia chaffeensis" and "Ehrlichiosis" highlight pathogens associated with diseases such as ehrlichiosis.

In the subsequent rows, the topics become more specific, covering a range of subjects from "Differential media," a concept crucial for culturing microorganisms effectively, to "Excystation," which is the process where encysted parasites transition to their active form. The inclusion of "Enterotoxin," linked to foodborne illnesses and gastrointestinal diseases, and "Enterococcus faecalis," a type of bacteria often involved in infections, underscores the table's focus on microbial pathogens and their impact on human health. Each term comes with contextual references, suggesting a well-organized compilation designed for readers needing quick access to relevant information on various microbiological terms and their implications in the medical field.

In summary, the table serves as a concise yet informative resource, reflecting a systematic approach to categorizing crucial microbiological concepts, diseases, and their respective references. This organized presentation aids in understanding the relationship between different pathogens, their mechanisms, and relevant clinical implications, thus providing a valuable tool for students and professionals engaged in the study or practice of microbiology and infectious diseases.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Eumycotic mycetoma, 282\nExanthems, 403</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Excystation, 171</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Exfoliative toxin, 273</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Exogenous, 145</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Exotoxins, 150</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Eye infections, 375-379</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>bacterial, 376-377</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>viral, 378-379</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>F</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>Facultative organisms, 45</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>Facultative parasites, 154</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Fascioliasis, 233</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presents a structured list of terms and their corresponding page references, mainly related to medical and microbiological topics. Each entry consists of significant keywords or phrases followed by numerical citations that lead to further detailed discussions in the referenced text. For instance, "Eumycotic mycetoma" is noted with a reference to page 282, indicating that further details regarding this fungal infection can be found there. Additionally, this entry is accompanied by another term, "Exanthems," which correlates with page 403, emphasizing conditions characterized by rash or skin eruptions.

As the table progresses, it covers various terms including "Excystation," which is referenced on page 171, likely discussing the process by which cystic stages of parasites exit their protective envelopes to become active. The term "Exfoliative toxin," with its significance evident in relation to skin infections, is noted with a reference on page 273. Other entries include "Eye infections," categorized into bacterial and viral types with page references 375 to 379 showing a detailed exploration of these infections, which indicates a division in terms of causative agents and their clinical implications.

The continuation of this tabular list introduces entries such as "Facultative organisms," linked with page 45, and "Facultative parasites," indicated on page 154. These terms point towards a discussion on organisms that can adapt to various environmental conditions, including their role in disease. There is also a mention of "Fascioliasis," referenced on page 233, indicating research or information relevant to this liver fluke infection, which underscores the importance of understanding a diverse range of pathogens in the field of nursing and microbiology. The table effectively organizes these topics, promoting easy navigation through related subject matters within the context of the referenced material.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>assay\nFasciolopsiasis, 237\nEnrichment media, 14\nEumycotic mycetoma, 282\n(ELISA), 359\nFasciolopsis buski, 236-237</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Eosinophils, 107\nFifth disease</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Epidemic typhus, 425\nSee Erythema infectiosum</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Epidermophyton, 280\nFilariasis, 262-264</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Epiglottitis, 306\nFiltration, 82</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Epitope, 104\nFimbriae</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), 422\nSee Pili</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>Erratic parasites, 155\nFitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome, 352</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>Erysipelas, 275\nFlaccid paralysis, 391, 395</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>Erythema infectiosum, 408\nFlagella, classiffication of, 35</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>Erythrogenic toxin, 295\nFlavivirus, 398</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>Eschar, 272, 427\nFleming, Alexander, 5</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Escherichia coli, 334-336\nFlora, 53</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td>enteroaggregative/adherent E. coli\nFlukes, 225</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>14</th>
      <td>Fluorescent Treponemal\n(EAEC), 335\nAntibody</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>15</th>
      <td>enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), 335\nAbsorption (FTA-ABS), 351</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>16</th>
      <td>enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), 335\nFocal infection, 146</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>17</th>
      <td>enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), 335\nFolliculitis, 273</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>18</th>
      <td>Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC),\nFomites, 70, 284\n336</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>19</th>
      <td>Eukaryotes, 21\nFood-borne botulism, 391</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>20</th>
      <td>Hemolytic reactions, 14\nHortaea werneckii, 279\nHemolytic-uremic syndrome, 334, 335\nHost, 142\nHemorrhagic colitis, 336\nHot air oven, 81\nHemorrhagic cystitis, 294\nHPV\nHenipavirus, 431\nSee Human papillomavirus\nHeparnavirus, 322\nHSV\nHepadnavirus, 323\nSee Herpes simplex virus\nHepatitis, 317, 322-325\nHuman diploid cell vaccine (HDCV), 397\nHepatitis A Virus (HAV), 322-323\nHuman herpes virus, 407\nHepatitis B Virus (HBV), 323\nHuman Herpesviridae, 284, 355\nHepatitis C Virus (HCV), 323-324\nHuman immunodeficiency virus (HIV),\nHepatitis D Virus (HDV/Delta Virus), 324\n357, 358</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presents a structured compilation of various medical terms and their associated topics, serving as a reference for those studying diseases and their implications, particularly within the context of microbiology. Each entry in the table is indexed by a numeric key, which organizes the extensive list effectively. For instance, the first entry is indexed as "0" and includes terms such as "assay," "Fasciolopsiasis," "Enrichment media," and "Eumycotic mycetoma," along with references to specific pages relevant to these topics.

Following this, the table continues with several rows that detail a variety of medical subjects, including "Eosinophils" in row one and its related context titled "Fifth disease," thereby indicating associations that may be explored further in the text. Additional rows bring in references to diseases such as "Epidemic typhus," associated with "Erythema infectiosum," as well as terms like "Epidermophyton," "Filariasis," "Epiglottitis," and various strains of "Escherichia coli," illustrating a wide array of infectious agents and conditions. 

The design of the table facilitates navigation through the entries, allowing for quick access to essential information while correlating detailed medical terms with their definitions or related phenomena. Notably, terms such as "Hemolytic reactions," "Hepatitis," and "Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)" appear alongside references, pointing to their significance in the study of infectious diseases, immunology, and associated immunopathological considerations. This systematic cataloging of medical and microbiological terminology serves as an invaluable tool for researchers, students, or healthcare professionals seeking to enhance their understanding of these critical topics within the medical field.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Paramyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431\nParasites, 154–155</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Parasitic infections, 163–165</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Parasitism, 136, 154–155</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Parasitology, 3</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Paratenic hosts, 155</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Parenteral hepatitis, 323</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presents a list of important microbiological and parasitological terms accompanied by their respective reference pages in the context of a comprehensive nursing or medical text. The first column contains index numbers, while the second column offers terms directly related to different aspects of parasitology and viral families, specifically the Paramyxoviridae. Each entry is essential for understanding specific topics in microbiology, such as "Paramyxoviridae," which spans pages 296, 301, 320, and 431, indicating its significance across various sections in the text.

Following the first entry, the table continues with other critical terms relating to parasitology, including specific concepts like "Parasitic infections," which covers pages 163 to 165. This aspect indicates a thorough exploration of how parasitic organisms affect human health. Additionally, it lists "Parasitism" with references to pages 136 and 154 to 155, indicating its foundational role in understanding host-parasite relationships. Other entries include "Parasitology" itself, which is referenced on page 3, portraying the study of parasites in detail.

Moreover, the table highlights related terms like "Paratenic hosts" on page 155 and "Parenteral hepatitis" on page 323, which illustrate more specialized topics within parasitology, showcasing its multifaceted nature. The absence of an entry in the last row may imply either a placeholder or an intentional omission, leaving room for further elaboration or future additions. Overall, this well-structured table serves as a useful reference for nursing students and professionals seeking to navigate the complex intersections of microbiology and infectious diseases.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Obligate parasites, 154\nPAS Stain\nNorwalk virus, 328\nParamyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431\nOccupational exposure, 64\nSee Periodic acid-Schiff stain</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Onychomycosis, 280\nPasteur, Louis, 5</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Open flame, 81\nPasteurization, 5, 78–79</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Ophthalmiam neonatorum, 352,\nPathogen-associated molecular\n377\npatterns,</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Opisthotonus, 390\n110</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Oral thrush, 320\nPathogenesis, 157</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Organotrophs, 44\nPathogenic stage, 171</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>Orientia tsutsugamushi, 427\nPathogenicity, 136</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>Ornithodorus, 431\nPediculosis pubis, 360</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>Oropharyngeal tuberculosis, 343\nPediculus humanus, 431</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>Penicillium notatum, 5</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>Orthomyxoviridae, 297\nPeptidoglycan, 24, 32</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Oseltamivir, 299\nPeriodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stain, 279</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td>Osmophiles, 46\nPeriodontal disease, 319–320</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>14</th>
      <td>Osmotic pressure, 83\nPeriodontitis, 320</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>15</th>
      <td>Osteochondritis, 276\nPerioral erythema, 273</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>16</th>
      <td>Otalgia, 296\nPeripheral lymphoid organs, 105</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>17</th>
      <td>Otitis externa, 296\nPermanent parasites, 154</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>18</th>
      <td>Otitis media, 296\nPersonal protective equipment (PPE), 64,</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>19</th>
      <td>Otorrhea, 296\n67–69</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>20</th>
      <td>Pertussis, 309–310</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>21</th>
      <td>P\nstages of, 309</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>22</th>
      <td>Papules, 271, 403\ncatarrhal, 309</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>23</th>
      <td>Paragonimiasis, 235–236\nconvalescent, 309</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>24</th>
      <td>Paragonimus westermani, 234–236\nparoxysmal, 309</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>25</th>
      <td>Parainfluenza, 294, 296–297\nPharyngitis, 294</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>26</th>
      <td>Paralytic poliomyelitis, 390\nPharyngoconjunctival fever, 293</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>27</th>
      <td>Paralytic shellfish poisoning, 26\nPhenolic compounds, 86</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>28</th>
      <td>Phthirus pubis, 360</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>29</th>
      <td>Pseudomonas aeruginosa, 276,\nPhycology, 3\n308\nPili, 35\nPsychrophiles, 45\nPityriasis versicolor, 279\nPustules, 272, 403\nPityrosporum orbiculare, 279\nPyelonephritis, 368</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presents a compilation of medical terms and their corresponding references, meticulously organized in a two-column format. The left column contains numerical identifiers, ranging from 0 to 29, while the right column lists various topics primarily associated with infectious diseases and microbiology. Each entry provides a direct correlation between the term and its relevant page numbers, which assists readers in easily locating detailed information within the broader context of the document.

Among the notable terms included are "Obligate parasites" with a reference to page 154 and mentions of various pathogens such as "Norwalk virus" on page 328 and "Paramyxoviridae" across multiple pages (296, 301, 320, 431). There are also references to medical procedures and techniques like "PAS Stain," indicating its significance in diagnostic practices of microbiology. The table contains a range of conditions and organisms, from "Onychomycosis" at page 280 to "Otitis media" and related conditions appearing under the same numerical identifier, showcasing the interconnectedness of different medical fields, including dermatology and otolaryngology.

In addition to germs and infections, the table encompasses discussions of treatment strategies like "Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain," which appears on page 279, and highlights significant medical terminology. It also addresses various types of diseases, such as "Pharyngitis" on page 294 and "Pertussis" with associated stage descriptions on pages 309-310. By systematically organizing these entries, the table provides a handy reference guide that facilitates scholarly inquiry, aiding healthcare professionals and students alike in navigating through complex medical literature with ease.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
      <th>1</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Incubation period, 147\nKanagawa hemolysin, 331\nImmunogen, 104\nInterstitial pneumonia, 302\nIndigenous flora, 4\nKeratitis, 183\nInfant botulism, 391\nKinyoun stain, 12\nInfection, 136, 138–142\nKlebsiella pneumoniae, 307\nclassification of, 145\nKlebsiella, 296\ncontrol of, 63\nKoch, Robert, 5, 136\nfactors of, 138–142\nKoch's postulates, 5, 136–138\nmodes of transmission, 140–141\nKoplik's spots, 404\nportal of exit, 140\nInfectious diseases, 4\nL\nclassification of, 145–146\nLag phase, 47\nstages of, 147–148\nLarge intestines, 326–343\nInfectious hepatitis, 322\nLate congenital syphilis, 350\nInfectious mononucleosis, 422–\nLatent disease, 146\n423\nInfective stage, 171\nLatent syphilis, 350\nInfestation, 154\nLeeuwenhoek, Anton van, 5\nInfluenza, 297–299\nLegionella pneumophila, 307–308\nantigens of, 297\nLegionnaire's disease, 308\nLeishmania braziliensis complex, 188–\nimmunologic types of, 297\n189\nInfluenza A, 297\nLeishmania donovani complex, 186–188\nInfluenza B, 297\nLeishmania tropica complex, 189–190\nInfluenza C, 297\nLeprosy, 392–394\nInfrared rays, 82\nInspissation, 79\ntwo forms of, 393\nIntermediate hosts, 155\nlepromatous, 393\nIntermittent parasites, 154\ntuberculoid, 393\nNorwalk virus, 328\nParamyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431\nNosocomial, 145\nParasites, 154–155</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>Nosocomial infections, 276\nParasitic infections, 163–165</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>Nosocomial pneumonia, 302, 308\nParasitism, 136, 154–155</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>Nucleoid, 36\nParasitology, 3</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Paratenic hosts, 155</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>O\nParenteral hepatitis, 323</td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td></td>
      <td></td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The table presented encompasses a diverse array of terms associated with various aspects of microbiology and infectious diseases, organizing them in a structured manner. Within the first column, numerous items related to infectious diseases and specific pathogens are listed, each accompanied by page references for further reading. For instance, entries include "Incubation period," referencing page 147, followed by notable mentions like "Klebsiella pneumoniae" on page 307 and “Influenza” from pages 297 to 299. This systematic layout allows easy navigation through the relevant topics that deal with the classification, control measures, and transmission modes of these infectious agents.

The second row of the table specifically highlights "Nosocomial" infections, pointing to their significance in healthcare contexts, listed under page 276. Additional terms such as "Parasitic infections," which span pages 163 to 165, indicate an important dimension of microbiology focused on the effects of parasites on human health. Furthermore, the table continues to elaborate on various facets of parasitism and relevant diseases, with specific references to "Nosocomial pneumonia" found between pages 302 and 308. The entries further delve into scientific terminologies like “Nucleoid” (page 36) and “Parasitology” (page 3), which provide foundational knowledge relevant to the field of study.

The table also introduces other essential concepts such as "Paratenic hosts" (page 155) and "Parenteral hepatitis" (page 323), emphasizing their implications in understanding disease pathology and transmission. The careful arrangement of terms alongside their corresponding references is instrumental for readers seeking in-depth knowledge, making the information readily accessible for educational and research purposes. Overall, this compilation serves as a vital resource, covering critical topics that span both the theoretical and practical aspects of microbiology, infectious diseases, and parasitologic studies.


key: html
string_value:
<table border="1" class="dataframe">
  <thead>
    <tr style="text-align: right;">
      <th></th>
      <th>0</th>
    </tr>
  </thead>
  <tbody>
    <tr>
      <th>0</th>
      <td>Rotavirus, 328\nspecies of, 339\nRohrer, Heinrich, 10\nSexually transmitted infections, 348–360\nRPR\nShigellae, 339</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>1</th>
      <td>See Rapid plasma reagin\nSIDS</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>2</th>
      <td>RSV\nSee Sudden infant death syndrome</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>3</th>
      <td>See Respiratory syncytial virus\nSignificant bacteriuria, 369</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>4</th>
      <td>Rapid plasma reagin (RPR), 351\nSinusitis, 295–296</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>5</th>
      <td>Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV),\nSkin infections, 272–285\n301</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>6</th>
      <td>Rubella, 405–407\ntypes of, 272–285</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>7</th>
      <td>Rubivirus, 406\nbacterial, 272–278</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>8</th>
      <td>Ruska, Ernst, 10\nfungal, 279–282</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>9</th>
      <td>viral, 282–285</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>10</th>
      <td>S\nSkin lesions, 271–272</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>11</th>
      <td>Sabouraud dextrose agar, 15\nSmall intestines, 326–343</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>12</th>
      <td>Salmonella, 143, 336–339\nSound waves, 83</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>13</th>
      <td>categories of, 336\nSpanish flu, 297</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>14</th>
      <td>Salmonellae, 336\nSpastic paralysis, 390</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>15</th>
      <td>Saprophytes, 4\nSporadic disease, 145</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>16</th>
      <td>SARS\nSporothrix schenckii, 281</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>17</th>
      <td>See Severe Acute Respiratory\nSporotrichosis, 281</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>18</th>
      <td>Syndrome\nSpotted fever group, 425</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>19</th>
      <td>Scarlet fever, 295\nSSPE</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>20</th>
      <td>Schistosomiasis, 228–229\nSee Subacute sclerosing</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>21</th>
      <td>Scrofula, 311\npanencephalitis</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>22</th>
      <td>Scrub typhus, 427\nStaining, 10–12</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>23</th>
      <td>Secondary syphilis, 350\nStaphylococcal scalded skin syndrome,</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>24</th>
      <td>Selective media, 15\n273</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>25</th>
      <td>Staphylococcus aureus, 272–274, 308,\nSepsis, 65\n330</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>26</th>
      <td>Septicemia, 136, 337\nStaphylococcus epidermidis, 274</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>27</th>
      <td>Serratia marcescens, 367\nStaphylococcus saprophyticus, 367</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>28</th>
      <td>Serratia spp., 367\nStationary phase, 47–48</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>29</th>
      <td>Serum bath, 79\nSterilization, 64, 77</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>30</th>
      <td>Serum hepatitis, 323\nmethods of, 78–85</td>
    </tr>
    <tr>
      <th>31</th>
      <td>Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome\nStreptococcal gangrene, 275</td>
    </tr>
  </tbody>
</table>


key: chroma:document
string_value:
The provided HTML table presents an organized list that appears to be a section of a reference or index from a nursing or microbiology-related document. Each entry is numerically indexed and provides key terms or topics along with corresponding page numbers, which lead to more detailed discussions within the document. The first row includes diverse topics, such as "Rotavirus" with a specific mention of "328," "Shigellae" with "339," and "Sexually transmitted infections" with a range from "348–360." These entries indicate the extensive coverage of infectious agents and diseases relevant to nursing and microbiology.

Subsequent rows further elaborate on specific subjects, revealing interrelated topics. For instance, one entry points to "Rapid plasma reagin" and its page reference of "351," while another discusses "Respiratory syncytial virus" and "Skin infections," suggesting the focus on infectious diseases that can affect patients. The mention of various types of bacteria, viruses, and infections, such as "Salmonella," "SARS," and "secondary syphilis," highlights the areas of study critical for nursing professionals, particularly in understanding how to manage and treat different infections.

Additionally, the table provides cross-references to various medical conditions, diagnostic methods, and media used in laboratory settings, such as "Sabouraud dextrose agar" and "Selective media," indicating an emphasis on the scientific and clinical aspects of microbiology. This structured method of referencing allows for efficient navigation through a wealth of information, which is essential for practitioners in the healthcare field, particularly those focused on infectious diseases and overall patient care. The variety of terms and page references encapsulated within this table showcases the breadth of knowledge required for nursing students and professionals engaged in the microbiological landscape.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
cytoplasm
in the endoplasmic reticulum
70S; found in organelles such as
mitochondria or chloroplast
Membrane-bound
organelles
Absent
Present
Extrachromosomal
plasmid
Present
Absent
Duration of cell
cycle
Short (20–60 minutes)
Long (12–24 hours)
Feature
Feature
Prokaryotic Cell
Prokaryotic Cell
Eukaryotic Cell
Eukaryotic Cell
Features
Features
Bacteria
Bacteria
Fungi
Fungi
Cell type
Prokaryotic; unicellular
Eukaryotic; unicellular or
multicellular
Role in ecosystem
Can be both producers and
decomposers
Mainly decomposers
Optimal pH
Neutral pH (6.5–7.0)
Slightly acidic (4.0–6.0)
Cell structures
No true nucleus and membrane- bound
organelles
Possess true nucleus and
membrane-bound organelles
Main component
Peptidoglycan, except in
archaebacteria
of cell wall
Chitin
Sterols in cell
Absent except in Mycoplasma
membrane
Present
Mode of nutrition
Heterotrophic, chemoautotrophic,
photoautotrophic, aerobic, anaerobic,
facultative anaerobic
Heterotrophic; majority aerobic and


key: chroma:document
string_value:
A.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
1.
The outer surface of viruses is called which of the following?
a.
Capsomere
c.
Capsid
b.
Cell wall
d.
Chitin
2.
Which of the following is not a basis for classifying viruses?
a.
Type of nucleic acid they possess
b.
Susceptibility to antimicrobials
c.
Type of host infected
d.
Type of disease caused
3.
What do you call the main component of the cell wall of fungi?
a.
Chitin
c.
Ergosterol
b.
Peptidoglycan
d.
Pellicle
4.
Which of the following serves as source of energy for both algae and
plants?
a.
Oxygen
c.
Nitrogen
b.
Carbon dioxide
d.
Phosphorus
5.
Sterols are found in the cell membrane mainly of which class of
organism?
a.
Bacteria
c.
Fungi
b.
Algae
d.
Protozoa
Name:
Name:
Section:
Section:
Score:
Score:
Date:
Date:
Write a if the item is associated with prokaryotes only;
Write a if the item is associated with prokaryotes only;
b if the item is associated with eukaryotes only;


key: chroma:document
string_value:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
1.
Rod-shaped bacteria are known as:
a.
Cocci
c.
Spirochetes
b.
Bacilli
d.
Coccobacilli
2.
material of the bacteria?
Which among the following bacterial structures contains the
genetic
a.
Capsule
c.
Cell membrane
b.
Nucleoid
d.
Outer membrane
3.
negative bacteria?
Which among the following cell wall components is found only in
gram
a.
Lipopolysaccharide
c.
Mycolic acid
b.
Teichoic acid
d.
Muramic acid
4.
gram-positive bacteria?
Which among the following statements is correct regarding the
cell wall of
a.
It cannot be stained with crystal violet.
b.
Its outer layer is hydrophobic due to the presence of lipids.
c.
Its outer layer consists of a multilayered
peptidoglycan.
d.
The major component is lipoteichoic acid.
5.
following?
A bacterium that has flagella all over its body is classified as
which of the
a.
Lophotrichous
c.
Peritrichous
b.
Monotrichous
d.
Amphitrichous
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Stage control
Objective lenses
b.
Coarse adjustment
d.
Fine adjustment
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
7.
7.
differential media?
differential media?
Which among the following classes of culture media is classified as
Which among the following classes of culture media is classified as
a.
Thayer-Martin agar
c.
Sabouraud dextrose agar
b.
Löwenstein-Jensen agar
d.
MacConkey agar
8.
counterstain?
Which among the following reagents used in Gram staining is used as a
a.
Crystal violet
c.
95% alcohol
b.
Gram's iodine
d.
Safranin
9.
type of hemolytic reaction?
You cultured an organism using blood agar, and after 24 hours you noted
a greenish zone of hemolysis around the colonies. This is classified as
what
a.
Alpha hemolysis
c.
Delta hemolysis
b.
Beta hemolysis
d.
Gamma hemolysis
10.
Kinyoun method of acid-fast
staining?
Which among the following reagents is used as the counterstain in the
a.
Safranin
c.
Malachite green
b.
Carbol fuchsin
d.
Methylene blue
Feature
Feature
Prokaryotic Cell


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Foreword
Foreword
vii
vii
Preface
ix
Acknowledgments
xi
Part I
Textbook
Chapter 1: The Science of Microbiology
3
Chapter 2: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells21
Chapter 3: Bacterial Morphology
31
Chapter 4: Bacterial Growth Requirements43
Chapter 5: Normal Flora of the Human Body
53
Chapter 6: Medical and Surgical Asepsis
63
Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of
Sterilization
77
Chapter 8: Antimicrobial Agents93
Chapter 9: Host Response to Infection
103
Chapter 10: Bacteria and Disease
135
Chapter 11: Introduction to Parasitology
153
Chapter 12: Protozoa
171
Chapter 13: Cestodes
209
Chapter 14: Trematodes225
Chapter 15: Nematodes
241
Chapter 16: Infections of the Skin
271
Chapter 17: Infections of the Respiratory Tract289
Chapter 18: Infections of the Gastrointestinal Tract
317
Chapter 19: Sexually Transmitted Infections
347
Chapter 20: Infections of the Urinary Tract365
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
375
375


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Absent except in Mycoplasma
membrane
Present
Mode of nutrition
Heterotrophic, chemoautotrophic,
photoautotrophic, aerobic, anaerobic,
facultative anaerobic
Heterotrophic; majority aerobic and
facultative anaerobic
Reproduction
Binary fission
Sexual and asexual spores
Features
Features
Algae
Algae
Plants
Plants
Taxonomic classification
Kingdom Protista
Kingdom Plantae
Cellular structure
Unicellular, multicellular, or
colony-forming
Multicellular
Photosynthetic
Yes
Yes
Energy source
Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide
Storage form of energy
Starch
Starch
Vascular system*
Absent
Present
Habitat
Mostly water
Mostly rooted to the ground
Composed of roots, stems,
and
leaves
No
Yes
Method of reproduction
Both asexual and sexual
Sexual (complex)
Name:
Name:
Section:
Section:
Score:
Score:
Date:
Date:


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Part II
Laboratory Exercises
Exercise No. 1: The Microscope
441
Exercise No. 2: The Cell443
Exercise No. 3: Gram staining
445
Exercise No. 4: Acid-fast Staining
449
Exercise No. 5: Sterilization and Disinfection453
Exercise No. 6: Bacterial Structures
457
Exercise No. 7: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
461
Exercise No. 8: Bacteria and Disease465
Exercise No. 9: Immunology
469
Exercise No. 10: Protozoans
473
Exercise No. 11: Cestodes477
Exercise No. 12: Trematodes
481
Exercise No. 13: Nematodes
485
Exercise No. 14: Infections of the Skin489
Exercise No. 15: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
493
Exercise No. 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal Tract
497
Exercise No. 17: UTI and Sexually Transmitted Infections
501
Exercise No. 18: Infections of the Eyes and Central Nervous
System
505
Exercise No. 19: Viral Exanthems
509
Exercise No. 20: Other Systemic Infections
513
References
517
Index
525
The Authors
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
375
375


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5.
following?
A bacterium that has flagella all over its body is classified as
which of the
a.
Lophotrichous
c.
Peritrichous
b.
Monotrichous
d.
Amphitrichous
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
Which of the following structures is utilized by bacteria for cell division?
Which of the following structures is utilized by bacteria for cell division?
a.
Pilus
c.
Mesosome
b.
Flagella
d.
Axial filament
7.
bacteria?
Which among the following is the site of the electron transport chain in
a.
Cell membrane
c.
Outer membrane
b.
Cell wall
d.
Capsule
8.
fast organisms is hydrophobic?
Which of the following components is the reason why the cell wall of acid
a.
Teichoic acid
c.
Mycolic acid
b.
Muramic acid
d.
Dipicolinic acid
9.
adverse environmental conditions?
Which among the following is produced by some bacteria when placed in
a.
Much granules
d.
a, b, and c
b.
Metachromatic granules
e.
a and b only
c.
Endospores
Which of the following is a structure found in gram-negative organisms


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Ocular lens or eyepiece
viewer looks to see the specimen.
Revolving nose piece
Located above the stage, it holds the objective lenses.
Diopter adjustment
It is used to change focus on one eyepiece in order to correct any
difference
in vision between the two eyes.
Body tube or head
It connects the eyepiece to the objective lenses.
Arm
It connects the body tube to the base of the microscope.
Coarse adjustment
It brings the specimen into general focus.
Fine adjustment
It fine-tunes the focus and increases the details of the specimen.
Objective lenses
This is held in place above the stage by the revolving nosepiece and are the
lenses that are closest to the specimen. It contains three to five objectives
ranging in power from 4X to 100X.
Stage
Located beneath the revolving nosepiece, it is the flat platform on which
the
specimen is placed.
Stage clips
Situated above the stage, these are metal clips that hold the slide in place.
Stage control


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317
Chapter 19: Sexually Transmitted Infections
347
Chapter 20: Infections of the Urinary Tract365
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
375
375
Chapter 22: Infections of the Nervous System
383
Chapter 23: Viral Exanthems403
Chapter 24: Other Systemic Infections417


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Section:
Score:
Score:
Date:
Date:
Write a if the item is associated with prokaryotes only;
Write a if the item is associated with prokaryotes only;
b if the item is associated with eukaryotes only;
c if the item is associated with both prokaryotes and eukaryotes;
or
d if the item is not associated with prokaryotic nor eukaryotic
cells.
1.
Reproduce by binary fission
2.
With 70S ribosomes
3.
Do not have membrane-bound organelles
4.
DNA associated with histones
5.
Can cause significant disease in humans
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:


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Ziehl-Neelsen
Kinyoun
Function
Acid-fast
Non-acid-fast
Carbol fuchsin
Carbol fuchsin
Primary stain
Red or pink
Red or pink
Acid alcohol
Acid alcohol
Decolorizer
Red
Colorless
Methylene
blue
Malachite
green
Counterstain
or secondary
stain
Ziehl-Neelsen:
red organism/
blue background
Kinyoun: red organism/
green background
Ziehl-Neelsen: blue
organism/blue background
Kinyoun: green organism/
green background
Reagent
Reagent
Result
Result
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
1.
Which among the following groups of organisms are not considered
cells?
a.
Bacteria
c.
Viruses
b.
Fungi
d.
Algae
2.
Which among the following types of microscopes can be used to study
the
genetic material of a cell (DNA or RNA) by adding a special form of dye?
a.
Phase-contrast microscope
c.
Fluorescence microscope
b.
Scanning probe microscope
d.
Confocal microscope
3.
slide in place?


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staining?
Which among the following reagents is used as the counterstain in the
a.
Safranin
c.
Malachite green
b.
Carbol fuchsin
d.
Methylene blue
Feature
Feature
Prokaryotic Cell
Prokaryotic Cell
Eukaryotic Cell
Eukaryotic Cell
Genetic material
Not enclosed within a membrane; not
associated with histones; usually
circular
Enclosed within a membrane;
associated with histones; usually
linear
Size
Smaller (1–2 µm by 1–4 µm or less)
Larger (greater than 5 µm)
Cell type
Mostly unicellular
Mostly multicellular
Nucleus
No true nucleus and nuclear membrane;
called nucleoid
With true nucleus enclosed by
nuclear membrane
Cell wall
Simple
Complex
Cell division
Budding or binary fission
Mitosis
Sexual reproduction
No meiosis; transfer of DNA only
Meiosis
Cytoskeleton
Absent
Present
Mesosome
Functions as mitochondria and Golgi
complex
Absent
Feature
Feature
Prokaryotic Cell
Prokaryotic Cell
Eukaryotic Cell
Eukaryotic Cell
Ribosomes
70S; located in
80S; located in membranes such
as


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10.
only and that contains the substance responsible for its endotoxin
activity?
a.
Cell wall
c.
Outer membrane
b.
Cell membrane
d.
Periplasmic space
6.
6.
Which of the following structures is utilized by bacteria for cell division?
Which of the following structures is utilized by bacteria for cell division?
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
A.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
1.
source are called:
Microorganisms that utilize inorganic compounds as sole
carbon
a.
Phototrophs
c.
Chemotrophs
b.
Heterotrophs
d.
Autotrophs
2.
electron transport chain?
Which among the following is a component of cytochrome in
the
a.
Iron
c.
Calcium
b.
Nitrogen
d.
Potassium
3.
they do not possess which of the
following enzymes?
Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen
because
a.
Catalase
d.
a and b only
b.
Coagulase
e.
a and c only
c.
Superoxide dismutase
4.
optimal growth?
What do you call bacteria that require increased salt


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Exercise No. 19: Viral Exanthems
509
Exercise No. 20: Other Systemic Infections
513
References
517
Index
525
The Authors
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
Chapter 21: Infections of the Eyes
375
375
Component
Component
Function
Function
This is the topmost part of the microscope; the lens through which the


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i.
Stationary phase
ii.
Death or
decline phase
2.
Characterized by increased metabolic activity
of the organism
i.
Lag phase
ii.
Log phase
3.
Period when the generation time is
determined
i.
Lag phase
ii.
Log phase
4.
The number of dead cells = the number of
living cells.
i.
Stationary phase
ii.
Death or
decline phase
Write a if the item is
Write a if the item is
associated with i only;
associated with i only;
Organism
Organism
Remarks
Remarks
Staphylococcus epidermidis
This is a major skin inhabitant, comprising approximately
90%
of resident aerobic flora.
Staphylococcus aureus
This is most commonly found in nose and perineum; in the
nose, number varies with age (greater in newborns than in
adults).
Micrococci (Micrococcus luteus)
This accounts for 20–80% of micrococci in the skin.
Diphtheroids (Coryneforms)
These are classified into: lipophilic (common in axilla)
or non-lipophilic (more common on glabrous or hairless skin
such as palms of hands).


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a.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Diphtheroids
b.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
d.
Micrococcus luteus
3.
except:
There is temporary carriage of the following
organisms in the pharynx,
a.
Haemophilus influenzae
c.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
b.
Neisseria meningitidis
d.
Staphylococcus aureus
4.
Which of the following is true of vaginal flora?
a.
It remains the same throughout the lifetime of the woman.
b.
environment.
Before puberty, Escherichia coli may inhabit the
vagina due the acidic
c.
the vaginal pH alkaline.
At puberty, the predominant flora include
Lactobacillus which makes
d.
Young girls are predisposed to gonococcal
infection because their
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
host?
host?
What type of relationship exists between the normal flora and
What type of relationship exists between the normal flora and
the human
the human
a.
Mutualism
c.
Parasitism
b.
Antagonism
d.
Synergism
6.
from the small intestines?
Which of the following groups of bacteria are transient
bacteria cultured
a.


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the
specimen is placed.
Stage clips
Situated above the stage, these are metal clips that hold the slide in place.
Stage control
Found beneath the stage, these knobs move the stage either left or right or
forward and backward.
Aperture
This is the hole in the middle of the stage that allows light from the
illuminator to reach the slide containing the specimen.
On/off switch
This is the switch located at the base of the microscope that turns the
illuminator on or off.
Illuminator
This is the light source of the microscope.
Iris diaphragm
Found on the condenser, it is used to adjust the amount of light coming
through the condenser.
Condenser
It is found beneath the stage and contains a lens system that focuses light
onto the specimen. It gathers and focuses light onto the specimen.
Base
It supports the microscope and it is where the illuminator is found.
Component
Component
Function
Function
Table
Table
1.2
1.2
Reagents used in Gram-staining and expected


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a.
Cerebrospinal fluid
c.
Synovial fluid
b.
Urinary bladder
d.
Esophagus
10.
Most microorganisms are found in which layer of
the skin?
a.
Stratum germinativum
c.
Stratum corneum
b.
Stratum lucidum
d.
Stratum granulosum
5.
5.
host?
host?
What type of relationship exists between the normal flora and
What type of relationship exists between the normal flora and
the human
the human
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
1.
susceptible host?
Which of the following terms refers to how individuals acquire
an
infectious agent starting from the source until it enters the
body of the
a.
Chain of infection
c.
Mode of transmission
b.
Portal of entry
d.
Pathogenicity
2.
Which of the following illustrates microorganism transmission
via fomites?
a.
Infected wound drainage comes in contact with the nurse's
hands.
b.
A virus is transmitted through sexual intercourse.
c.
someone coughs nearby.


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genetic material of a cell (DNA or RNA) by adding a special form of dye?
a.
Phase-contrast microscope
c.
Fluorescence microscope
b.
Scanning probe microscope
d.
Confocal microscope
3.
slide in place?
Which among the following parts of the microscope can be used to hold
the
a.
Coarse adjustment
c.
Eye piece
b.
Fine adjustment
d.
Stage clip
4.
Who among the following scientists discovered the vaccine for smallpox?
a.
Louis Pasteur
c.
Edward Jenner
b.
Alexander Fleming
d.
Robert Koch
5.
use?
You discovered a new organism and you want to study its three
dimensional image and cell physiology. Which type of microscope will
you
a.
Electron microscope
c.
Scanning probe microscope
b.
Fluorescence microscope
d.
Confocal microscope
6.
microscope will you use to move the stage left or
right?
You are given a new slide to study in the laboratory. Which part of the
a.
c.


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c.
To reduce the chances of disease transmission
d.
To prevent drying of the skin after handling
disinfectants
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
Which
Which
of
of
the
the
following
following
organisms
organisms
is
is
not
not
commonly
commonly
involved
involved
in
in
development of nosocomial infections?
development of nosocomial infections?
a.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
c.
Candida albicans
b.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d.
Escherichia coli
7.
Based on WHO recommendations, the gloves can be removed in all the
following instances, except:
a.
When handwashing is indicated
b.
Before contact with a contaminated body site
c.
After contact with a single patient and his/her surroundings
d.
After contact with blood or body fluids
8.
Which part of the gown is considered sterile?
a.
From 5 inches below the elbow
b.
From chest down to level of sterile field
c.
Back of the gown
d.
Neck and underarms
9.
Which of the following is an example of reverse isolation?
a.


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because
a.
Catalase
d.
a and b only
b.
Coagulase
e.
a and c only
c.
Superoxide dismutase
4.
optimal growth?
What do you call bacteria that require increased salt
concentration for
a.
Photoorganotrophs
c.
Mesophiles
b.
Alkalophiles
d.
Halophiles
5.
Bacteria that require an optimum temperature of 10–20°C are
called:
a.
Thermophiles
c.
Psychrophiles
b.
Mesophiles
d.
Neutrophiles
6.
positive bacterial cell wall?
Which of the following inorganic ions is a component of gram
a.
Calcium
c.
Nitrogen
b.
Iron
d.
Phosphorus
Write a if the item is
Write a if the item is
associated with i only;
associated with i only;
b if the item is associated
with ii only;
c if the item is associated with both i and ii; or
d if the item is not associated with i or ii.
1.
Formation of spores occurs


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10.
COVID-19 has been shown to spread via airborne route of transmission.
Which of the following precautions must be observed to prevent spread
of
infection in the community?
a.
Wear protective mask at all times, even at home.
b.
Patients with symptoms must be placed in quarantine.
6.
6.
Which
Which
of
of
the
the
following
following
organisms
organisms
is
is
not
not
commonly
commonly
involved
involved
in
in
development of nosocomial infections?
development of nosocomial infections?
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
1.
Which of the following is the process by which most microbial forms on
inanimate objects are killed without necessarily destroying the spores?
a.
Sterilization
c.
Tyndallization
b.
Disinfection
d.
Lyophilization
2.
of sterilization?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the physical
methods
a.
Dry heat is more effective than moist
heat.
b.
temperatures for heating.


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Diphtheroids (Coryneforms)
These are classified into: lipophilic (common in axilla)
or non-lipophilic (more common on glabrous or hairless skin
such as palms of hands).
Anaerobic diphtheroids (Propionibacterium acnes) are most
common in areas rich in sebaceous glands.
Gram-negative Bacilli
(Enterobacter, Klebsiella,
Escherichia coli, and Proteus
spp.)
These are seen in moist intertriginous areas such as toe
webs
and axilla.
Nail Flora
Microflora are similar to that of the skin.
Fungi may also be present (Aspergillus, Penicillium,
Cladosporium, or Mucor).
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
1.
Which of the following is true of resident flora?
a.
Temporarily inhabits specific body areas for a few hours or
days
b.
Derived mainly during intrauterine life
c.
Regularly found in a given area at a given age and of a fixed
type
d.
Produces significant disease in healthy individuals
2.


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the human
the human
a.
Mutualism
c.
Parasitism
b.
Antagonism
d.
Synergism
6.
from the small intestines?
Which of the following groups of bacteria are transient
bacteria cultured
a.
Bacteroides, streptococci, and Lactobacillus
b.
diphtheriae
Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and
Corynebacterium
c.
Staphylococcus epidermidis, diphtheroids, and
Candida
d.
Neisseria meningitidis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, and
Bordetella pertussis
7.
organism?
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has
occurred in
the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate.
According to
your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely
source of the
a.
Nose
c.
Vagina
b.
Colon
d.
Throat
8.
The following are sources of normal flora of the
newborn, except:
a.
Mother's genital tract during delivery
b.
Normal flora in the mother's womb
c.
Respiratory tract of those who handled the baby
d.
The environment
9.
The following are normally sterile at birth, except:


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Base
It supports the microscope and it is where the illuminator is found.
Component
Component
Function
Function
Table
Table
1.2
1.2
Reagents used in Gram-staining and expected
Reagents used in Gram-staining and expected
results
results
Reagent
Reagent
Function
Function
Result if gram
Result if gram
positive
positive
Result if gram
Result if gram
negative
negative
Crystal violet
Primary stain
Purple or blue
Purple or blue
Gram's iodine
Mordant*
Purple or blue
Purple or blue
Acetone or 95%
alcohol
Decolorizer
Purple or blue
Colorless
Safranin
Counterstain or
secondary stain
Purple or blue
Red or pink
Table
Table
1.3
1.3
Reagents used in acid-fast staining and the expected
Reagents used in acid-fast staining and the expected
results
results
-----------
--------------------------------------------------------------
Reagent
Reagent
Result
Result


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via fomites?
a.
Infected wound drainage comes in contact with the nurse's
hands.
b.
A virus is transmitted through sexual intercourse.
c.
someone coughs nearby.
Microorganisms comes in contact with a person's nasal
mucus when
d.
Contaminated stethoscope touches a client's
skin.
3.
Which among the following is associated with
surgical asepsis?
a.
It is the absence of disease-causing
microorganisms.
b.
It is an infectious control process aimed at reducing spread of
infection.
c.
medications.
It is used for processes such as wound care or administration
of IV
d.
Proper hand hygiene is an example.
4.
called which of the following?
Infections that are acquired during the course of stay in the
hospital are
a.
Nosocomial infection
c.
Accidental infection
b.
Sepsis
d.
Localized infection
5.
following reasons, except:
Handwashing is an essential part of infection control. It is
done for the
a.
To reduce the flora on the health worker's skin
b.


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6.
glutaraldehyde?
a.
It is used in gaseous sterilization.
b.
It is less potent than formaldehyde.
c.
It is sporicidal.
d.
All of the above
7.
kill all forms of the organism including the spores?
Which of the following is considered as the best
antiseptic because it can
a.
Phenol
c.
Cresols
b.
Alcohol
d.
Iodine
8.
Which among the following is the mechanism of
action of alcohol?
a.
Denaturation of cellular proteins
b.
Modification of functional groups of proteins and
nucleic acids
c.
Damages the cell
membrane
d.
Inhibits RNA
synthesis
9.
disinfectant or
antiseptic?
Which among the following is not a characteristic
of a good chemical
a.
It should be stable and active in any pH.
b.
It should not leave a residual antimicrobial film on
the treated surface.
c.
It should non-toxic, hypoallergenic, and non-
irritating.
d.
It should be safe under storage.
10.
ophthalmia
neonatorum?
Which of the following chemical agents is used
clinically as treatment for
a.
Mercurials
c.
Iodine
b.


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string_value:
a.
From 5 inches below the elbow
b.
From chest down to level of sterile field
c.
Back of the gown
d.
Neck and underarms
9.
Which of the following is an example of reverse isolation?
a.
A patient with a contagious infection is placed in a room with positive
air pressure.
b.
Patient must wear a mask every time someone enters the room.
c.
All individuals entering the room must wear a mask.
d.
All individuals entering the room as well as the patient must wear a
mask.


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DNA gyrase
Fluoroquinolones
RNA polymerase
Rifampin
Target site modified
Target site modified
Antibiotics involved
Antibiotics involved
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
A.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
1.
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of tetracycline?
a.
subunit
Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to bacterial 30S ribosomal
b.
Inhibits microbial metabolic
pathways
c.
Interferes with synthesis of bacterial cell wall
d.
Alters the permeability of the cell membrane
2.
bacterium Bacillus sp.?
Which of the following antimicrobials was derived from the
a.
Penicillin
c.
Bacitracin
b.
Tetracycline
d.
Chloramphenicol
3.
infects bacteria?
Which among the following methods of gene exchange involves the
transfer of genetic material by means of a bacteriophage, a virus that
a.
Transformation
c.
Conjugation
b.
Transduction
d.
Binary fission
4.
transpeptidase?


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days
b.
Derived mainly during intrauterine life
c.
Regularly found in a given area at a given age and of a fixed
type
d.
Produces significant disease in healthy individuals
2.
Which of the following is a predominant inhabitant of the
skin?


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d.
Lyophilization
2.
of sterilization?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the physical
methods
a.
Dry heat is more effective than moist
heat.
b.
temperatures for heating.
The presence of organic material such as fats may require lower
c.
Spore-forming microorganisms are more difficult to destroy.
d.
As the temperature increases, the time taken to sterilize also increases.
3.
milk products?
Which of the following methods is used mainly for sterilization of milk
and
a.
Autoclaving
c.
Pasteurization
b.
Boiling
d.
Tyndallization
4.
spore-forming organisms?
Which of the following conditions has been shown effective in
destroying
a.
Heating at 60–65 °C followed by rapid
cooling
b.
Heating at 72 °C for 15 seconds followed by quick cooling to 13 °C
c.
0.5 seconds
Heating is done at 140 °C for a period of 15 seconds and 149 °C for
d.
Heating at 121 °C for 15–20 minutes at
15 psi
5.
5.
Which of the following methods causes
Which of the following methods causes


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synthesis
2.
b.
Cephalosporin
Alteration of cell membrane
c.
Inhibition of protein synthesis
3.
d.
Trimethoprim
Inhibition of DNA synthesis
4.
e.
Quinolones
Inhibition of RNA synthesis
5.
f.
Nystatin
Inhibition of microbial
metabolic pathways
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
Factors that limit entry of microorganisms
Factors that limit entry of microorganisms
Mode of action
Mode of action
Keratin layer of intact skin
Acts as a mechanical barrier
Lysozyme in tears and other secretions
Degrades bacterial cell wall
Respiratory cilia
Direct organisms trapped in mucus out of the
respiratory passages
Low pH of stomach and vagina; fatty acids in
skin
Inhibits growth of microorganisms
Surface phagocytes
Ingest and destroy microbes
Normal flora
Prevent colonization by pathogens
Factors that limit growth of the
microorganisms within the body
Mode of action
Natural killer cells
Kill virus-infected cells
Neutrophils
Ingest and destroy microbes
Macrophages and dendritic cells


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Cells
and epithelial cells
lymphocytes
Memory
No
Yes
Response amplifiable
No
Yes
Components
Physical and chemical barriers
Skin, mucosa; antimicrobial
substances (e.g.,
defensins)
Secreted antibodies
Blood proteins
Complement
Antibodies
Line of defense
First and second
Third (immune
response)
Property
Property
Innate Immunity
Innate Immunity
Adaptive Immunity
Adaptive Immunity
Secretory
Secretory
component
component
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
Heavy Chain
µ (mu)
γ (gamma)
α (alpha)
ε (epsilon)
δ (delta)
MW (Da)
900k
150k
385k
200k
180k
% of total
antibody
in serum
6%
80%
13%
0.002%
1%
Fixes
complement
Yes
Yes
No
No
No
Function
Primary response,
fixes complement.
Monomer serves
as B cell receptor
Main blood
antibody,
neutralizes toxins,
opsonization
Secreted into
mucus,
tears,
saliva
Antibody of
allergy and
anti-parasitic
activity
B cell
Receptor
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
1.


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irritating.
d.
It should be safe under storage.
10.
ophthalmia
neonatorum?
Which of the following chemical agents is used
clinically as treatment for
a.
Mercurials
c.
Iodine
b.
Silver nitrate (1%)
d.
Chlorhexidine
5.
5.
Which of the following methods causes
Which of the following methods causes
destruction of organisms through
destruction of organisms through
production of reactive oxygen species?
production of reactive oxygen species?
Target site modified
Target site modified
Antibiotics involved
Antibiotics involved
Peptide subunits of
peptidoglycan
Glycopeptides
Ribosome subunits
Macrolides, tetracyclines,
aminoglycosides
Metabolic enzymes
Sulfa drugs, sulfones, trimethoprim
Lipopolysaccharide structure
Polymyxins


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Heating is done at 140 °C for a period of 15 seconds and 149 °C for
d.
Heating at 121 °C for 15–20 minutes at
15 psi
5.
5.
Which of the following methods causes
Which of the following methods causes
destruction of organisms through
destruction of organisms through
production of reactive oxygen species?
production of reactive oxygen species?
a.
Ultraviolet light
(UVL)
c.
Tyndallization
b.
Ionizing radiation
d.
Lyophilization
Which of the following is correct regarding


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b.
Inactivated vaccine
d.
Subunit vaccine
6.
6.
reaction exemplifies which type of hypersensitivity
reaction exemplifies which type of hypersensitivity
response?
response?
A patient underwent blood transfusion due to bleeding. Within
A patient underwent blood transfusion due to bleeding. Within
minutes
minutes
into the transfusion the patient started to develop chills.
into the transfusion the patient started to develop chills.
Transfusion
Transfusion
Property
Property
Exotoxin
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Endotoxin
Bacterial source
Mostly gram-positive bacteria;
some gram-negative bacteria
Gram-negative bacteria only
Relation to
microorganism
Metabolic product of growing cell;
secreted outside cell
Present in LPS of outer membrane
of cell wall; released after lysis of
cell wall
Toxicity
Extremely toxic; sometimes fatal
Weakly toxic
Chemistry
Protein or short peptides
Lipid A of LPS of outer membrane
Pharmacology (effect
on
the body)
Specific for a particular cell


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a.
B lymphocyte
c.
CD8+ T lymphocyte
b.
CD4+ T lymphocyte
d.
Natural killer cell
5.
response of the child?
A 7-year-old child was playing in the park when he
got stung by a bee.
Within minutes, he developed rashes and severe
difficulty of breathing.
Which of the following is the mechanism involved in
the type of immune
a.
histamine
Binding of IgE-allergen complex to surface of mast
cells with release of
b.
Activation of classical complement pathway with
production of C3b
c.
endothelium
Formation of immune complexes in the circulation
with deposition on
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
reaction exemplifies which type of hypersensitivity
reaction exemplifies which type of hypersensitivity
response?
response?
A patient underwent blood transfusion due to bleeding. Within
A patient underwent blood transfusion due to bleeding. Within
minutes
minutes
into the transfusion the patient started to develop chills.
into the transfusion the patient started to develop chills.
Transfusion
Transfusion


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b.
Sepsis
d.
Localized infection
5.
following reasons, except:
Handwashing is an essential part of infection control. It is
done for the
a.
To reduce the flora on the health worker's skin
b.
To protect the healthcare worker in case there is a break in the
skin


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Factors that limit growth of the
microorganisms within the body
Mode of action
Natural killer cells
Kill virus-infected cells
Neutrophils
Ingest and destroy microbes
Macrophages and dendritic cells
Ingest and destroy microbes; present antigens
to
T cells
Interferons
Inhibit viral replication; produce anti-viral state
Complement system
Membrane attack complex creates holes in
bacterial cell membrane; components activate
inflammation
Fever
Inhibits bacterial growth
Inflammatory response
Limits spread of microbes by destroying them
Property
Property
Innate Immunity
Innate Immunity
Adaptive Immunity
Adaptive Immunity
Activity at birth
Yes
No
Response time
Immediate
Delayed
Specificity for microorganisms
Relatively low (PAMPs)
High (specific antigens)
Phagocytic cells, NK cells,
B lymphocytes and T


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transfer of genetic material by means of a bacteriophage, a virus that
a.
Transformation
c.
Conjugation
b.
Transduction
d.
Binary fission
4.
transpeptidase?
Which of the following acts by inhibiting the conversion of immature
peptidoglycan to mature peptidoglycan by inhibiting the enzyme
a.
Cephalosporin
c.
Chloramphenicol
b.
Tetracycline
d.
Vancomycin
5.
fluoroquinolones?
Which among the following is the mechanism of resistance of
a.
Drug modification or inactivation
b.
Bypass target enzyme
c.
Modification of target sites
d.
Target mimicry
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
a.
Tetracycline
Inhibition of cell wall


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saliva
Antibody of
allergy and
anti-parasitic
activity
B cell
Receptor
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
1.
Which of the following is a central or primary lymphoid
organ?
a.
Appendix
c.
Lymph node
b.
Bone marrow
d.
Spleen
2.
response?
A patient is infected with SARS-CoV-2. In response,
there is activation
of CD8+ T lymphocytes. This is an example of which
type of immune
a.
Adaptive, cell-mediated
c.
Innate, cell-mediated
b.
Adaptive, humoral
d.
Innate, humoral
3.
Which of the following is a characteristic of innate
immunity?
a.
Specific
c.
Possesses immunologic memory
b.
Short-term protection
d.
Amplifiable response
4.
pathogens such as viruses?
Which of the following innate immune cells act by
targeting intracellular


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a.
Asymptomatic carrier
c.
Incubatory carrier
b.
Chronic carrier
d.
Convalescent carrier
4.
a birthday party. This is an example of which mode of
transmission?
A 6-year-old child was brought to the Emergency
Room (ER) due to
vomiting and diarrhea a few hours after eating
spaghetti that was served at
a.
Person-to-person contact
c.
Vector transmission
b.
Vehicle transmission
d.
Airborne transmission
5.
following is the probable mode of transmission involved?
A 25-year-old male had casual sex with a female he
met at a party. A week
later, he noted purulent discharge coming from his
penis. Which of the
a.
Direct contact
c.
Droplet transmission
b.
Vehicle transmission
d.
Vector transmission
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
A 16-year-old female was rushed to the ER because of high-grade
A 16-year-old female was rushed to the ER because of high-grade
meningococcemia. This illustrates what type of
infection?
fever, vomiting, and skin rash. Within 6 hours of admission, the patient


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breathing. The patient can be said to be in which stage of the infection
a.
Incubation period
c.
Period of illness
b.
Prodromal period
d.
Period of defervescence
6.
6.
A 16-year-old female was rushed to the ER because of high-grade
A 16-year-old female was rushed to the ER because of high-grade
Type of Parasite
Type of Parasite
Obligatory parasite
Parasite that cannot survive outside the host
Facultative parasite
Parasite capable of existing independently of the host
Endoparasite
Parasite that is established inside the host
Ectoparasite
Parasite that is established in or on the exterior surface of host
Type of Host
Accidental or
incidental host
Host other than the normal one that is harboring a parasite
Definitive host
Host in which the adult/sexual phase of parasite development occurs
Intermediate host
Host in which the larval/asexual phase of parasite development occurs
Reservoir host
Host harboring parasites that are parasitic for humans and from which
humans may become infected


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minutes
minutes
into the transfusion the patient started to develop chills.
into the transfusion the patient started to develop chills.
Transfusion
Transfusion
a.
Type I
c.
Type III
b.
Type II
d.
Type IV
7.
The following are features of IgM, except:
a.
Pentameric with J-chain
b.
Can activate or fix complement
c.
Able to cross the placenta
d.
Predominant in acute inflammation
8.
hepatitis B infection?
Which hypersensitivity reaction has been implicated in
patients with
a.
Type I
c.
Type III
b.
Type II
d.
Type IV
9.
Which
immunoglobulin
respiratory and gastrointestinal tract infections?
is
important
in
preventing
occurrence
of
a.
IgA
c.
IgG
b.
IgE
d.
IgM
10.
is an example of which type of vaccine?
The COVID-19 vaccine utilizes the spike protein of the
causative virus. This
a.
Killed vaccine
c.
Live, attenuated vaccine


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cell wall
Toxicity
Extremely toxic; sometimes fatal
Weakly toxic
Chemistry
Protein or short peptides
Lipid A of LPS of outer membrane
Pharmacology (effect
on
the body)
Specific for a particular cell
structure or function in the host
(mainly affects cell functions,
nerves, and GIT)
General, such as fever, malaise,
and
shock; all produce the same effects
Antigenicity
Extremely antigenic
Less antigenic
Enzymatic activity
Yes
No
Heat stability
Heat-labile (except staphylococcal
enterotoxin)
Heat-stable
Fever production
No
Yes
Specificity
High degree
Low degree
Relation to antibodies
Can be converted to toxoids;
neutralized by anti-toxins
Cannot be converted to toxoids;
not
neutralized by antitoxins
Denaturation on boiling
Yes
No
Location of genes
Present on plasmids or
bacteriophages
Bacterial chromosome
Representative diseases
Gas gangrene, botulism,
diphtheria,
tetanus, scarlet fever
Typhoid fever, urinary tract
infections, meningococcal
meningitis, and meningococcemia
Name:
Name:


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Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
1.
the relationship between normal intestinal flora and
humans?
Which of the following is a form of symbiotic
relationship exemplified by
a.
Parasitism
c.
Commensalism
b.
Mutualism
d.
Antagonism
2.
milk?
Which of the following parasites may be
transmitted through mother's
a.
Ascaris
c.
Giardia
b.
Enterobius
d.
Strongyloides
3.
takes place?
Which of the following is a type of host where
sexual stage of the parasite
a.
Reservoir host
c.
Intermediate host
b.
Paratenic host
d.
Definitive host
4.
infection with which of the following parasites?
Development of cancer of the urinary bladder has
been associated with
a.
Schistosoma japonicum
c.
Clonorchis sinensis
b.
Plasmodium falciparum
d.
Schistosoma haematobium
5.
penetration?
Which among the following parasites can be
transmitted through skin
a.
Trichomonas vaginalis
c.
Enterobius vermicularis
b.
Strongyloides stercoralis
d.
Balantidium coli
Name:


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b.
Trypanosoma spp.
d.
Plasmodium spp.
10.
parasites?
Which of the following is the most common source of infection for
a.
Another person of his clothing
b.
Food containing the infective stage of the
parasite
c.
A blood-sucking insect
d.
Soil contaminated with human feces
6.
6.
locomotion?
locomotion?
Which of the following protozoan parasites possesses pseudopodia
Which of the following protozoan parasites possesses pseudopodia
for
for
Parameter
Parameter
Trophozoite
Trophozoite
Cyst
Cyst
Size range
8–65 µm
8–22 µm
Shape
Irregular
Spherical to round
Motility
Yes (with finger-like pseudopodia)
No
Number of nuclei
One
One to four
Karyosome
Small and central
Small and central
Peripheral chromatin
Fine and evenly distributed
Fine and evenly distributed
Cytoplasm
Finely granular
Finely granular
Cytoplasmic
inclusions
Ingested red blood cells
Chromatoid bars and diffuse
glycogen mass in young
cysts
P. falciparum
P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. vivax
P. ovale
P. ovale
Young


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compact chromatin
Size of
infected
red cell
Unchanged
Unchanged or
smaller
Enlarged
Enlarged
Shape of
red cell
Sometimes irregular
and crenated
Unchanged
Unchanged
Often irregular
with jagged edges
Stippling
Sometimes present
(Maurer's dots)
Rarely present
(Ziemann's dots)
Often present
(Schüffner's dots)
Always present
(Schuffner's or
James' dots)
P. falciparum
P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. vivax
P. ovale
P. ovale
P. Vivax
P. Vivax
P. Ovale
P. Ovale
P. Malariae
P. Malariae
P. Falciparum
P. Falciparum
Ring Stage
Trophozoite
Schizont
Segmenter
Gametocytes
sequestered
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
1.
an insect vector?
Infection with which of the following parasites is
acquired through bite of
a.
Balantidium coli
d.
a and b only
b.
Giardia lamblia
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Leishmania donovani
2.
contaminated water?
Which among the following parasites is acquired
through swimming in
a.


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A 16-year-old female was rushed to the ER because of high-grade
meningococcemia. This illustrates what type of
infection?
fever, vomiting, and skin rash. Within 6 hours of admission, the patient
went into cardiac arrest and expired. The admitting impression was
a.
Localized infection
c.
Systemic infection
b.
Fulminant infection
d.
Subclinical infection
7.
to another is referred to as which of the following?
In the chain of infection, how the organisms move around from one
person
a.
Reservoir
c.
Portal of entry
b.
Portal of exit
d.
Mode of transmission
8.
types of infection?
A 35-year-old male patient diagnosed with AIDS developed symptoms
consistent with pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jirovecii infection. The
pulmonary problem in this case is an example of which of the following
a.
Community-acquired infection
b.
Nosocomial infection
c.
Secondary infection
d.
Primary infection
9.
an example of which mechanism of disease
production?


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Type 4:
Sensitized T cell reaction with
Inflammation, mononuclear
Leishmaniasis,
cell
antigen, release of lymphokines,
accumulation, macrophage
schistosomiasis,
mediated
triggered cytotoxicity
activation; tissue damage
trypanosomiasis
Reaction
Reaction
Mechanism
Mechanism
Result
Result
Example
Example
Parasite
Parasite
Biologic, Morphologic, and Physiologic
Biologic, Morphologic, and Physiologic
Characteristics
Characteristics
Protozoa
Amoeba
Unicellular; cyst
and
trophozoite forms
Binary fission
Pseudopods
Facultative
anaerobe
Assimilation
by
pinocytosis or
phagocytosis
Flagellates
Unicellular; cyst
and
trophozoite forms
Binary fission
Flagella
Facultative
anaerobe
Simple
diffusion
or ingestion
via
cytostome,
pinocytosis,
or
phagocytosis
Ciliates
Unicellular; cyst
and
trophozoite forms
Binary fission or
conjugation
Cilia
Facultative
anaerobe
Ingestion via
cytostome,
food
vacuole
Sporozoa
Unicellular,
frequently
intracellular;
multiple
forms, including
trophozoites,
sporozoites, cysts


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a.
food and water.
It is primarily transmitted by ingestion of trophozoite
in contaminated
b.
Food is the major source of infection of the parasite.
c.
Cysts are usually found in diarrheic stool.
d.
The pathogenic stage of the parasite is the trophozoite.
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
man facies"
man facies"
appearance?
appearance?
The cyst stage of which among the following parasites is described as
The cyst stage of which among the following parasites is described as
"old
"old
Entamoeba histolytica
a.
Balantidium coli
c.
b.
Giardia lamblia
d.
Trichomonas vaginalis
7.
Plasmodium falciparum?
Which of the following are seen within red blood cells infected with
a.
Maurer's dots
c.
Schuffner's dots
b.
Ziemann's dots
d.
James' dots
8.
Which of the following is the insect vector for Trypanosoma brucei?
a.
Anopheles mosquito
c.
Tsetse fly
b.
Aedes mosquito
d.
Triatoma or reduviid bug
9.
Which of the following parasites exists in trophozoite form only?
a.
Toxoplasma
c.
Entamoeba
b.


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Representative diseases
Gas gangrene, botulism,
diphtheria,
tetanus, scarlet fever
Typhoid fever, urinary tract
infections, meningococcal
meningitis, and meningococcemia
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
1.
other?
Which of the following is a form of symbiotic
relationship where one
organism benefits from another and at the same
time causes harm to the
a.
Parasitism
c.
Commensalism
b.
Mutualism
d.
Synergism
2.
microorganisms?
Which of the following provides a continual source
of disease-causing
a.
Reservoir
c.
Portal of Entry
b.
Portal of exit
d.
Host
3.
for a prolonged period of time after developing the initial
infection?
Which of the following refers to an individual who
harbors the organism


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Intermediate host
Host in which the larval/asexual phase of parasite development occurs
Reservoir host
Host harboring parasites that are parasitic for humans and from which
humans may become infected
Transport/Paratenic
host
Host responsible for transferring a parasite from one location to another
Parasite-Host
Relationships
Symbiosis
Living together; the association between two living organisms, each of
different species.
Commensalism
Association between two different species of organisms that is beneficial
to
one and neutral to the other.
Mutualism
Association between two different species of organisms that is beneficial
to
both.
Parasitism
Association between two different species of organisms in which one
benefits at the other's expense.
Reaction
Reaction
Mechanism
Mechanism
Result
Result
Example
Example
Type 1:
Parasite antigen + IgE attach to
Anaphylactic shock;
Helminths;
allergy or
mast cells, causing histamine
bronchospasm; local
African
anaphylactic
release.
inflammation


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Cytoplasmic
inclusions
Ingested red blood cells
Chromatoid bars and diffuse
glycogen mass in young
cysts
P. falciparum
P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. vivax
P. ovale
P. ovale
Young
trophozoite
• 
fine
ring
• 
multiple
infection
• 
crescent-shaped
mass at outer edge
of RBC (accole form);
one to two small
chromatin dots
• 
only
detected
in
severe infection
• 
thick
ring;
one
chromatin dot
• 
similar
to
P. vivax
but smaller
• 
thick
ring,
often irregular
amoeboid
appearance; one
chromatin dot
• 
thick
ring;
one
chromatin dot
• 
circular
shape
Mature
trophozoite
• 
ring
enlarged;
slightly irregular
• 
round
with
central chromatin
and band
forms; pigment
(hemozoin)
distinct
• 
irregular,
amoeboid
• 
round,
compact
Schizont
8–36 merozoites
in cluster or rosette
arrangement; ring
enlarged; only
detected
in severe infections
6–12 merozoites
arranged in
rosettes or irregular
clusters; central
location of brown
green pigment
12–24 merozoites
arranged
irregularly


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5.
penetration?
Which among the following parasites can be
transmitted through skin
a.
Trichomonas vaginalis
c.
Enterobius vermicularis
b.
Strongyloides stercoralis
d.
Balantidium coli
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
locomotion?
locomotion?
Which of the following protozoan parasites possesses pseudopodia
Which of the following protozoan parasites possesses pseudopodia
for
for
a.
Balantidium coli
c.
Plasmodium falciparum
b.
Entamoeba histolytica
d.
Schistosoma japonicum
7.
which of the following parasites?
Xenodiagnosis is a special method of diagnosis to detect the
presence of
a.
Trichomonas vaginalis
c.
Trypanosoma cruzi
b.
Ascaris lumbricoides
d.
Enterobius vermicularis
8.
infection with Entamoeba histolytica?
Which of the following is the mechanism involved in the pathogenesis
of
a.
Traumatic damage
b.
Lytic necrosis
c.
Stimulation of host tissue reaction
d.
Toxic and allergic reactions
9.
vectors, except:
The following parasites are transmitted by bite of blood-sucking
insect
a.


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a.
Balantidium coli
d.
a and b only
b.
Giardia lamblia
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Leishmania donovani
2.
contaminated water?
Which among the following parasites is acquired
through swimming in
a.
Balantidium coli
c.
Entamoeba histolytica
b.
Naegleria fowleri
d.
Toxoplasma gondii
3.
Quotidian malaria is caused by which of the following?
a.
Plasmodium vivax
d.
Plasmodium falciparum
b.
Plasmodium ovale
e.
Plasmodium knowlesi
c.
Plasmodium malariae
4.
transmission?
Infection with which among the following parasites
is through sexual
a.
Trichomonas
c.
Leishmania
b.
Plasmodium
d.
Entamoeba
5.
Which among the following statements is true of
Entamoeba histolytica?


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a.
Community-acquired infection
b.
Nosocomial infection
c.
Secondary infection
d.
Primary infection
9.
an example of which mechanism of disease
production?
Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan that causes the disease amoebiasis.
The
organism reaches the intestines and releases enzymes that cause lysis of
underlying tissues causing development of a "flask-shaped" ulcer. This is
a.
Mechanical
c.
Immunological
b.
Chemical
d.
a and b only
10.
process?
A 50-year-old diabetic was exposed to a neighbor who had COVID-19.
After 5 days, he started to manifest with cough, colds, and difficulty of


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Result
Example
Example
Type 1:
Parasite antigen + IgE attach to
Anaphylactic shock;
Helminths;
allergy or
mast cells, causing histamine
bronchospasm; local
African
anaphylactic
release.
inflammation
trypanosomiasis
Type 2:
antibody
mediated
Antibody + parasite antigen on
cell surface cause activation of
complement activation or
natural
killer cells.
Lysis of cell-bearing parasite
antigens
Trypanosoma
cruzi
Type 3:
Antibody + extracellular antigen
Inflammation and tissue
Malaria,
immune
complex with deposition on
damage; complex
deposition
schistosomiasis,
complex
endothelium of blood vessels
in organs and tissues
trypanosomiasis


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a.
Anopheles mosquito
c.
Tsetse fly
b.
Aedes mosquito
d.
Triatoma or reduviid bug
9.
Which of the following parasites exists in trophozoite form only?
a.
Toxoplasma
c.
Entamoeba
b.
Trichomonas
d.
Trypanosoma
10.
parasites?
Congenital infection is seen in infection with which of the following
a.
Trichomonas vaginalis
c.
Toxoplasma gondii
b.
Trypanosoma cruzi
d.
Trypanosoma brucei
Characteristics
Characteristics
Taenia saginata
Taenia saginata
Taenia solium
Taenia solium
Scolex
Number of suckers
Four
Four
Rostellum
Absent
Present
Hooks
Absent
Present; double
crown
Gravid Proglottid
Appearance, shape
Rectangular
Somewhat square
Number of uterine branches
on each side of uterus
15–30
7–15
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:


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conjugation
Cilia
Facultative
anaerobe
Ingestion via
cytostome,
food
vacuole
Sporozoa
Unicellular,
frequently
intracellular;
multiple
forms, including
trophozoites,
sporozoites, cysts
(oocysts), gametes
Schizogony and
sporogony
None
Facultative
anaerobe
Simple
diffusion
Helminths
Cestodes
Multicellular; head
with segmented
body
(proglottids); lack
of
digestive tract;
head
equipped with
hooks
and/or suckers for
attachment
Hermaphroditic
No single
organelle;
usually
attachment
to mucosa;
possible
muscular
motility
(proglottids)
Adults
usually
anaerobic
Absorption of
nutrients from
intestines
Trematodes
Multicellular; leaf
shaped with oral
and
ventral suckers,
and
blind alimentary
tract
Hermaphroditic;
Schistosoma
spp. has
separate sexes
No single
organelle;
muscle
directed
motility
Adults
usually
anaerobic
Ingestion or
absorption of
body fluids,
tissue, or
digestive
contents
Nematodes
Multicellular;
round,
smooth, spindle
shaped, tubular
digestive tract;
possibility of teeth
or


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b.
Lytic necrosis
c.
Stimulation of host tissue reaction
d.
Toxic and allergic reactions
9.
vectors, except:
The following parasites are transmitted by bite of blood-sucking
insect
a.
Toxoplasma gondii
c.
Leishmania spp.


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7.
Which of the following is the longest of the
tapeworms?
a.
Diphyllobothrium latum
c.
Hymenolepis nana
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Taenia solium
8.
Infection with the broad fish tapeworm can lead to which of the
following?
a.
Vitamin B12 deficiency
c.
Pernicious anemia
b.
Iron-deficiency anemia
d.
Microcytic, hypochromic anemia
9.
Which of the following is true of Echinococcus
granulosus?
a.
The diagnostic stage is the cyst.
b.
The infective stage is the adult worm.
c.
Embryos are encased within hydatid cyst.
d.
a and c only
10.
Which of the following does not require an obligatory
intermediate host?
a.
Diphyllobothrium latum
c.
Hymenolepis nana
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Taenia solium
6.
6.
Taenia solium?
Taenia solium?
Which of the following is a feature associated with Taenia
Which of the following is a feature associated with Taenia
saginata, not
saginata, not
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on


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Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the
correct answer on the space provided.
1.
Which of the following is not a property of
cestodes?
a.
All are
hermaphroditic.
b.
The organ of attachment is the neck.
c.
Hooks may be attached to a rostellum.
d.
Majority involve fecal-oral
transmission.
2.
The intermediate host for which of the
following is cattle?
a.
Taenia saginata
c.
Taenia solium
b.
Diphyllobothrium latum
d.
Echinococcus granulosus
3.
of the following is correct regarding the
parasite involved?
A 20-year-old male sought consult
because of muscle pain. History
revealed that he is fond of eating
half-cooked meat (beef and pork).
Which
a.
The infective stage in this case is the ova
of the parasite.
b.
Involvement of the
nervous system is usually
mild.
c.
Autoinfection does not occur.
d.
Pigs are the definitive hosts while
humans are the intermediate hosts.
4.
Which of the following cestodes has two
intermediate hosts?
a.
Taenia solium
c.
Taenia saginata
b.


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enlarged; only
detected
in severe infections
6–12 merozoites
arranged in
rosettes or irregular
clusters; central
location of brown
green pigment
12–24 merozoites
arranged
irregularly
8–14 merozoites
with rosette
arrangement
Gametocyte
• 
crescentic
• 
male:
reddish
with
diffuse chromatin
• 
female:
bluish
with
• 
oval
or
rounded
• 
male:
diffuse
chromatin
• 
oval
or
rounded
• 
male:
diffuse
chromatin
• 
oval
or
rounded
• 
male:
diffuse
chromatin


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c.
Has male and female worms
d.
Infective stage is fork-tailed cercaria
5.
Infection with which of the following can mimic pulmonary
tuberculosis?
a.
Clonorchis sinensis
c.
Paragonimus westermani
b.
Fasciola hepatica
d.
Schistosoma japonicum
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
The egg of which of the following has a large terminal
The egg of which of the following has a large terminal
spine?
spine?
Schistosoma mansoni
a.
Schistosoma japonicum
c.
b.
Schistosoma haematobium
d.
a and b only
7.
The temporary lodgement of adult worms in the pharynx causing
suffocation is associated with which of the following parasites?
a.
Fasciolopsis buski
c.
Paragonimus westermani
b.
Fasciola hepatica
d.
Schistosoma japonicum
8.
Which of the following is true of Katayama fever?
a.
It occurs with all species of Schistosoma.
b.
It occurs within hours of exposure to the schistosomes.
c.
The most common cause of death is bleeding from ruptured varices.
d.
Portal hypertension does not develop.
9.


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4.
Cochin China diarrhea is associated with which of the
following parasites?
a.
Ascaris lumbricoides
c.
Trichuris trichiura
b.
Enterobius vermicularis
d.
Strongyloides stercoralis
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
Which of the following parasites is also known as
Which of the following parasites is also known as
threadworm?
threadworm?
a.
Ascaris lumbricoides
c.
Enterobius vermicularis
b.
Strongyloides stercoralis
d.
Trichuris trichiura
6.
The natural hosts for which of the following parasites are
migratory birds?
a.
Necator americanus
c.
Strongyloides stercoralis
b.
Trichinella spiralis
d.
Capillaria philippinensis
7.
face, fever, muscle pain, and rashes?
Infection with which of the following parasites manifest as
edema of the
a.
Strongyloides stercoralis
c.
Trichinella spiralis
b.
Ancylostoma duodenale
d.
Ascaris lumbricoides
8.
Löffler syndrome is associated with which of the
following parasites?
a.
Strongyloides stercoralis
c.
Trichinella spiralis
b.
Ancylostoma duodenale
d.


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Ascaris
lumbricoides
(Common
roundworm)
Small intestines;
larvae through
lungs
Ingestion of eggs
from fecally
contaminated soil
or food
Stool exam for
eggs; sputum
exam for larvae
Albendazole,
mebendazole
Ancylostoma
duodenale,
Necator
americanus
(Human
hookworms)
Small intestines;
larvae through
skin, lungs
Larvae in soil
penetrate skin
Stool exam for
eggs; sputum
exam for larvae
Albendazole,
mebendazole
Strongyloides
stercoralis
(Threadworm)
Small intestines;
larvae through
skin, lungs
Larvae in soil
penetrate skin;
autoinfection
(rare)
Stool exam,
sputum exam
or bronchial
lavage for larvae
serology
Ivermectin,
albendazole
Parasite/
Parasite/
Disease
Disease
Site of Infection
Site of Infection
Mode of
Mode of
Transmission
Transmission
Diagnosis
Diagnosis
Treatment
Treatment
Parasite/
Parasite/
Disease
Disease
Site of Infection
Site of Infection
Mode of
Mode of
Transmission
Transmission
Diagnosis
Diagnosis
Treatment
Treatment
Trichinella
spiralis
(Muscle
worm)


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Adults
usually
anaerobic
Ingestion or
absorption of
body fluids,
tissue, or
digestive
contents
Nematodes
Multicellular;
round,
smooth, spindle
shaped, tubular
digestive tract;
possibility of teeth
or
plates for
attachment
Separate sexes
No single
organelle;
active
muscular
motility
Adults
usually
anaerobic;
larvae
possibly
aerobic
Ingestion or
absorption of
body fluids,
tissue, or
digestive
contents
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:


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2.
depth of involvement?
The patient's infection can be classified as which of the
following based on
a.
Superficial mycosis
c.
Cutaneous mycosis
b.
Subcutaneous mycosis
d.
Systemic mycosis
3.
skin of infected individuals?
Which of the following organisms produces skin lesions that
are described
as cauliflower-like in appearance and are acquired through
contact with
a.
Herpes simplex 1
c.
Sporothrix schenckii
b.
Human papillomavirus
d.
Madurella spp.
4.
following characterizes the probable causative
agent?
You consult your dermatologist because of several "pimple-
like" lesions on
your scalp that looked infected. The diagnosis was folliculitis.
Which of the
a.
Gram-positive diplococci, lancet-shaped
b.
Gram-positive cocci in clusters
c.
Gram-positive cocci, beta-hemolytic
d.
Gram-positive bacilli, anaerobic
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
reactivation of lesions?
reactivation of lesions?
Which of the following is characterized by periods of


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Which of the following is a feature associated with Taenia
saginata, not
saginata, not
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
1.
improperly cooked aquatic vegetation?
Infection with which of the following is acquired through
ingestion of
a.
Fasciola hepatica
d.
a and b only
b.
Fasciolopsis buski
e.
b and c only
c.
Paragonimus westermani
2.
sinensis?
Which among the following is the second intermediate host
of Clonorchis
a.
Freshwater fish
c.
Freshwater snail
b.
Crab or crayfish
d.
Aquatic vegetation
3.
Which among the following schistosomes has predilection
for the liver?
a.
Schistosoma japonicum
c.
Schistosoma mansoni
b.
Schistosoma haematobium
d.
a and c only
4.
Which among the following is not a characteristic
of blood flukes?
a.
Transmitted by skin penetration
b.
Second intermediate host is a snail


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d.
Pigs are the definitive hosts while
humans are the intermediate hosts.
4.
Which of the following cestodes has two
intermediate hosts?
a.
Taenia solium
c.
Taenia saginata
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Diphyllobothrium latum
5.
Pruritus ani may occur in patients
infected with which of the following?
a.
Hymenolepis nana
c.
Both a and b are correct
b.
Taenia saginata
d.
Neither a nor b are correct
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
6.
6.
Taenia solium?
Taenia solium?
Which of the following is a feature associated with Taenia
Which of the following is a feature associated with Taenia
saginata, not
saginata, not
a.
Hooks are absent.
b.
Gravid segment is somewhat square.
c.
Rostellum is present.
d.
All of the above


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b.
Streptococcus pyogenes
d.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
5.
5.
reactivation of lesions?
reactivation of lesions?
Which of the following is characterized by periods of
Which of the following is characterized by periods of
latency with
latency with
Category
Category
Agents
Agents
Common viruses that usually
cause the common cold
Rhinovirus (most
common)
Parainfluenza viruses
Respiratory syncytial virus
Coronavirus
Common infectious agents
that
occasionally cause illness with
common cold symptoms
Adenoviruses
Enteroviruses
Influenza viruses
Reoviruses
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Category
Category
Agents
Agents
Illnesses with initial symptoms
Coccidioides immitis
suggestive of the common cold
Histoplasma
capsulatum
Bordetella pertussis
Chlamydia psittaci
Coxiella burnetti
Organism
Organism
Clinical Setting
Clinical Setting
Gram-Stained
Gram-Stained
Smears of
Smears of
Sputum
Sputum
Complications
Complications
Preferred
Preferred
Antimicrobial
Antimicrobial
Therapy
Therapy
Streptococcus
pneumoniae


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Treatment
Parasite/
Parasite/
Disease
Disease
Site of Infection
Site of Infection
Mode of
Mode of
Transmission
Transmission
Diagnosis
Diagnosis
Treatment
Treatment
Trichinella
spiralis
(Muscle
worm)
Adults in small intestines for 1–4 months; larvae encysted in
muscle tissue
Eating
undercooked,
infected pork or
other animal
Serology and
muscle
biopsy
(larvae)
Albendazole +
steroids (for severe
symptoms)
Wuchereria
bancrofti,
Brugia
malayi
(Filarial
worms)
Adult worms in lymph nodes, lymphatic ducts
Bite of
mosquitoes
transmit larvae
Blood smear
for
microfilariae
Diethylcarbamazine
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
1.
among the following nematodes?
Larval migration to the lungs or lung phase is seen in
the life cycle of which
a.
Ascaris lumbricoides
d.
a and b only
b.
Ancylostoma duodenale
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Strongyloides stercoralis
2.
food or water containing the infective ova?


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d.
Gram-positive bacilli, anaerobic
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
reactivation of lesions?
reactivation of lesions?
Which of the following is characterized by periods of
Which of the following is characterized by periods of
latency with
latency with
a.
Human papillomavirus
c.
Sporothrix schenckii
b.
Malassezia furfur
d.
Herpes simplex virus
6.
Which of the following is a common cause of stitch
abscesses?
a.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
d.
Streptococcus pyogenes
7.
involving the heart and kidneys?
Which of the following is associated with non-suppurative
complications
a.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
d.
Streptococcus pyogenes
8.
Which of the following is a dermatophyte infection
involving the groin?
a.
Tinea corporis
c.
Tinea cruris
b.
Tinea barbae
d.
Tinea unguium
9.
with gas gangrene?
Which of the following is a feature of the organism
commonly associated
a.
Spore forming
d.


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5.
5.
the lungs?
the lungs?
Primary infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis involves
Primary infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis involves
which part of
which part of
a.
Upper lobe only
c.
Middle and lower lobes
b.
Upper and middle lobes
d.
Lower lobe only
6.
Which of the following is not a clinical feature of
pertussis?
a.
Inspiratory whoop
c.
Seal bark cough
b.
Paroxysmal cough
d.
Rust-colored sputum
7.
Which of the following is the most common cause of the
common cold?
a.
Rhinovirus
c.
Coronavirus
b.
Influenza virus
d.
Adenovirus
8.
Woolsorter's disease is caused by which of the following
organisms?
a.
Bacillus anthracis
c.
Haemophilus influenzae
b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
9.
the other streptococci?
Which of the following tests will differentiate Streptococcus
pneumoniae from
a.
Gram stain
c.
Optochin test
b.
Culture
d.
Catalase test
10.
of infected patients?
Which of the following organisms is part of transient flora of
the


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Organism
Organism
Clinical Setting
Clinical Setting
Gram-Stained
Gram-Stained
Smears of
Smears of
Sputum
Sputum
Complications
Complications
Preferred
Preferred
Antimicrobial
Antimicrobial
Therapy
Therapy
Legionella sp.
Exposure to
contaminated
construction site,
water source,
air conditioner;
community
acquired or
nosocomial
Few PMNs;
no
bacteria
Empyema,
cavitation,
endocarditis,
pericarditis
Azithromycin or
clarithromycin
with or without
rifampin;
fluoroquinolones
Pneumocystis
jirovecii
AIDS, immune
suppressive
therapy
Not helpful in
diagnosis
Pneumothorax,
respiratory failure,
acute respiratory
distress
syndrome, death
Trimethoprim
sulfamethoxazole,
pentamidine
isethionate
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
severe difficulty of breathing. RT-PCR was
requested.
Case: A 65-year-old diabetic male was brought to the ER due


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Other
disease
associations
None
Primary
hepato-cellular
carcinoma,
cirrhosis
Primary
hepato-cellular
carcinoma,
cirrhosis
Cirrhosis,
fulminant
hepatitis
None
Laboratory
diagnosis
Symptoms
and
anti-HAV IgM
Symptoms and
serum levels of
HBsAg, HBeAg,
and anti-HBc
IgM
Symptoms and
anti-HCV ELISA
Anti-HDV
ELISA
—
Feature
Feature
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E
Non-invasive
Non-invasive
Diarrhea
Diarrhea
Invasive Diarrhea
Invasive Diarrhea
Characteristic of
stool
Profuse, secretory
(severe, watery)
Dysenteric (blood, mucus, white
blood cells)
Fever
No
Yes
Systemic toxicity
No
Yes
Abdominal pain
Mild
Severe (cramping; tenesmus)
Site of infection
Small intestine
Colon (large intestine)
Virus
Virus
Host Age
Host Age
Mode of Transmission
Mode of Transmission
Epidemiology
Epidemiology
Rotaviruses
Group A
6–24 months
Person-to-person; water
Single most important
cause
of endemic severe diarrheal


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Ancylostoma duodenale
d.
Ascaris lumbricoides
8.
Löffler syndrome is associated with which of the
following parasites?
a.
Strongyloides stercoralis
c.
Trichinella spiralis
b.
Ancylostoma duodenale
d.
Ascaris lumbricoides
9.
parasites?
The cellophane test is used to diagnose presence of which of
the following
a.
Ascaris lumbricoides
c.
Necator americanus
b.
Enterobius vermicularis
d.
Wuchereria bancrofti
10.
leading to edema of the extremities?
Which of the following parasites can cause obstruction of
lymphatic vessels
a.
Trichinella spiralis
c.
Wuchereria bancrofti
b.
Strongyloides stercoralis
d.
Capillaria philippinensis
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
Case: A 7-year-old boy was brought by his mother to the OPD
because of lesions on the
skin described as scaly, ring-shaped, expanding lesions with
central clearing scattered


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Clinical Setting
Gram-Stained
Gram-Stained
Smears of
Smears of
Sputum
Sputum
Complications
Complications
Preferred
Preferred
Antimicrobial
Antimicrobial
Therapy
Therapy
Streptococcus
pneumoniae
Chronic cardio
pulmonary disease;
follows URT
infections
Gram-positive
diplococci
Bacteremia,
meningitis,
endocarditis,
empyema,
pericarditis
Penicillin G
(or V, oral);
fluoroquinolones
or vancomycin for
highly penicillin
resistant
Haemophilus
influenzae
Chronic cardio
pulmonary disease;
follows URT
infections
Small gram
negative
coccobacilli
Empyema,
endocarditis
Ampicillin
or amoxicillin;
Cefotaxime
or ceftriaxone
Staphylococcus
aureus
Influenza
epidemics;
nosocomial
Gram-positive
cocci in clusters
Empyema,
cavitation
Nafcillin
Klebsiella
pneumoniae
Alcohol abuse, DM;
nosocomial
Gram-negative
encapsulated rods
Empyema,
cavitation
Third or fourth
generation
Cephalosporin
+ gentamicin
or tobramycin
Escherichia
coli
Nosocomial; rarely
community
acquired
Gram-negative
rods
Empyema


key: chroma:document
string_value:
b.
It occurs within hours of exposure to the schistosomes.
c.
The most common cause of death is bleeding from ruptured varices.
d.
Portal hypertension does not develop.
9.
the following organs?
Clonorchis sinensis is associated with development with cancer in
which of
a.
Bile ducts
c.
Liver
b.
Colon
d.
Urinary bladder
10.
liver?
Which of the following can be transmitted through ingestion of raw
sheep
a.
Fasciolopsis buski
c.
Schistosoma japonicum
b.
Clonorchis sinensis
d.
Fasciola hepatica
Parasite/
Parasite/
Disease
Disease
Site of Infection
Site of Infection
Mode of
Mode of
Transmission
Transmission
Diagnosis
Diagnosis
Treatment
Treatment
Enterobius
vermicularis
(Pinworm)
Lumen of cecum,
colon
Ingestion of eggs;
self-contamination
or autoinfection
Scotch Tape
test; microscopy
for eggs
Pyrantel pamoate,
mebendazole
Trichuris
trichiura
(Whipworm)
Cecum, colon
Ingestion of eggs
from fecally-
contaminated soil
or food
Stool exam for
eggs
Mebendazole,
albendazole,
pyrantel pamoate


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the life cycle of which
a.
Ascaris lumbricoides
d.
a and b only
b.
Ancylostoma duodenale
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Strongyloides stercoralis
2.
food or water containing the infective ova?
Infection with which among the following is acquired
through ingestion of
a.
Trichuris, Strongyloides, Enterobius
b.
Ancylostoma, Necator, Strongyloides
c.
Ascaris, Trichinella, Capillaria
d.
Enterobius, Ascaris, Trichuris
3.
rather than Ancylostoma duodenale?
Which of the following is a feature more associated
with Necator americanus
a.
Buccal capsule with a pair of cutting plates
b.
Acquired through skin penetration
c.
With a lung phase in its life cycle
d.
Pruritic vesicles at the site of skin penetration


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CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
severe difficulty of breathing. RT-PCR was
requested.
Case: A 65-year-old diabetic male was brought to the ER due
to severe shortness of
breath. Condition started 7 days after he was exposed to a
relative who had flu-like
illness. His condition started as sore throat, fever, myalgia,
and cough. After 2 days,
he complained of loss of taste and smell. Few hours prior to
admission, he developed
1.
Which of the following will be your consideration?
a.
Bacterial pneumonia
c.
COVID-19
b.
Chronic bronchitis
d.
Influenza
2.
likely involved?
If RT-PCR is positive for an RNA virus, which of the following
is most
a.
Influenza A virus
c.
Respiratory syncytial virus
b.
Adenovirus
d.
SARS-CoV-2
3.
Which of the following statements is true regarding
influenza virus?
a.
N antigens.
Antigenic shift results from genetic reassortment involving
the H and
b.
Influenza C virus causes both epidemics and
pandemics.
c.


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Host Age
Host Age
Mode of Transmission
Mode of Transmission
Epidemiology
Epidemiology
Rotaviruses
Group A
6–24 months
Person-to-person; water
Single most important
cause
of endemic severe diarrheal
illness in infants and young
children
Group B
Adults and
children
Person-to-person; water
Outbreaks of diarrhea in
China
Group C
Children
Person-to-person; water
Sporadic and occasional
outbreaks
Enteric
adenoviruses
(Group F or
serotypes 40
and
41)
Child < 2 years
of age
Person-to-person
Second most important viral
agent of endemic diarrhea
in
infants and young children
worldwide
Virus
Virus
Host Age
Host Age
Mode of Transmission
Mode of Transmission
Epidemiology
Epidemiology
Caliciviruses
Norovirus
Older children
and
adults
Person-to-person, water,
cold foods, raw shellfish
Causes outbreaks of
vomiting
and diarrhea in families,
communities, and institutions
Saporovirus
Infants, young
children, elderly
Sporadic and occasional
outbreaks
Astroviruses
Infants, young
children, elderly


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encapsulated rods
Empyema,
cavitation
Third or fourth
generation
Cephalosporin
+ gentamicin
or tobramycin
Escherichia
coli
Nosocomial; rarely
community
acquired
Gram-negative
rods
Empyema
Third-generation
cephalosporin
Pseudomonas
aeruginosa
Nosocomial; cystic
fibrosis
Gram-negative
rods
Cavitation
Anti-pseudomonal
cephalosporin or
carbapenem +
aminoglycoside
Mycoplasma
pneumoniae
Young adults
PMNs and
monocytes;
no bacterial
pathogens
Skin rashes,
hemolytic anemia
Erythromycin,
azithromycin or
clarithromycin;
doxycycline,
fluoroquinolones


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answer the following
Case: A 7-year-old boy was brought by his mother to the OPD
because of lesions on the
skin described as scaly, ring-shaped, expanding lesions with
central clearing scattered
on his trunk. The lesions were described as very itchy. A
fungal infection is considered.
1.
What is the probable diagnosis?
a.
Pityriasis versicolor
c.
Tinea nigra
b.
Tinea corporis
d.
Sporotrichosis


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Clostridium botulinum
12–17
Neuromuscular
paralysis
Canned foods, smoked fish,
unpasteurized honey
Staphylococcus aureus
2–4
Vomiting, diarrhea
Meats, custard, salads
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
10–24
Watery diarrhea
Shellfish
Clostridium perfringens
9–15
Watery diarrhea
Meat, poultry
Organism
Organism
Incubation
Incubation
period (hours)
period (hours)
Clinical
Clinical
presentation
presentation
Characteristic foods
Characteristic foods
Vibrio
Vibrio
cholera
cholera
Escherichia
Escherichia
coli
coli
Clostridium
Clostridium
perfringens
perfringens
Bacillus
Bacillus
cereus
cereus
Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus
aureus
aureus
Incubation (hours)
12–72
24–72
6–12
3–8
1–6
Abdominal cramps
––
+
++++
++
++
Vomiting
+
+/–
+
++
++++
Shigella
Shigella
spp.
spp.
Escherichia
Escherichia
coli
coli
Salmonella
Salmonella
spp.
spp.
Yersinia
Yersinia
enterocolitica
enterocolitica
Incubation (hours)
24–72
24–72
8–48
1–6
Abdominal cramps
++++
++++
+
++
Vomiting
++
++
++++
++
Fever
++
++
++++
++
Organism


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Clostridium
perfringens
Enterotoxin, no invasion
Meat, poultry, fish
Watery diarrhea,
food sources
Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
Invasion, inflammation
with necrosis and
scarring
Contaminated milk,
swallowing of coughed-up
organisms
Chronic abdominal
pain; complications
of malabsorption,
stricture, perforation,
fistulae, hemorrhage
Organism
Organism
Pathogenic Mechanism
Pathogenic Mechanism
Source
Source
Clinical Features
Clinical Features
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
and salad were
served.
Case: A group of children were rushed to the emergency
department presenting with
nausea and vomiting several hours after they attended a
birthday party where spaghetti
1.
Which of the following would be the primary
consideration?
a.
Typhoid fever
b.
Staphylococcal food poisoning
c.
Shigellosis
d.
Salmonella enterocolitis
2.


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influenza virus?
a.
N antigens.
Antigenic shift results from genetic reassortment involving
the H and
b.
Influenza C virus causes both epidemics and
pandemics.
c.
Antigenic drift is a major change involving the N antigen of
the virus.
d.
All of the above
4.
it does not possess a cell wall?
Which of the following cannot be destroyed by cell wall
inhibitors because
a.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b.
Haemophilus influenzae
d.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis


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Hepatitis C virus
6.
Which
of
the
following
gastroenteritis in nursing homes?
viruses
is
associated
with
outbreaks
of
a.
Adenovirus
c.
Rotavirus
b.
Norwalk virus
d.
Saporovirus
7.
administration of vaccine against hepatitis B
virus?
Infection with which of the following hepatitis viruses can be prevented
by
a.
Hepatitis A virus
c.
Hepatitis D virus
b.
Hepatitis C virus
d.
Hepatitis E virus
8.
except:
The following are lactose-fermenting members of the
Enterobacteriaceae,
a.
Escherichia coli
c.
Klebsiella sp.
b.
Enterobacter sp.
d.
Salmonella sp.
9.
shortest incubation period?
Which of the following causes of invasive bacterial diarrhea has the
a.
Yersinia enterocolitica
c.
Salmonella typhi
b.
Shigella dysenteriae
d.
Escherichia coli
10.
with which of the following organisms?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication associated with infection
a.
ETEC, Shigella
c.
STEC, Shigella
b.
EIEC, Salmonella
d.
STEC, Salmonella
5.
5.


key: chroma:document
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vomiting
and diarrhea in families,
communities, and institutions
Saporovirus
Infants, young
children, elderly
Sporadic and occasional
outbreaks
Astroviruses
Infants, young
children, elderly
Person-to-person, water,
raw shellfish
Sporadic and occasional
outbreaks
Organism
Organism
Incubation
Incubation
period (hours)
period (hours)
Clinical
Clinical
presentation
presentation
Characteristic foods
Characteristic foods
Bacillus cereus
1–6
Vomiting
Re-warmed fried rice
6–24
Watery diarrhea
Meat, poultry, vegetable


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Salmonella
spp.
spp.
Yersinia
Yersinia
enterocolitica
enterocolitica
Incubation (hours)
24–72
24–72
8–48
1–6
Abdominal cramps
++++
++++
+
++
Vomiting
++
++
++++
++
Fever
++
++
++++
++
Organism
Organism
Pathogenic Mechanism
Pathogenic Mechanism
Source
Source
Clinical Features
Clinical Features
Escherichia
coli
ETEC+
Cholera-like toxin,
no invasion
Food, water
Traveler's diarrhea
Watery diarrhea
STEC+
Shiga-like toxin,
no invasion
Undercooked
beef products
Hemorrhagic colitis,
HUS*
EPEC+
Attachment,
enterocyte effacement
Weaning foods, water
Watery diarrhea
EIEC+
Invasion, local spread
Cheese, water,
person-to-person
Fever, pain,
diarrhea,
dysentery
Organism
Organism
Pathogenic Mechanism
Pathogenic Mechanism
Source
Source
Clinical Features
Clinical Features
Salmonella spp.
Invasion, dissemination
Milk, beef, eggs, poultry
Fever, pain, diarrhea
or
dysentery, bacteremia,
extra-intestinal
infection
Shigella spp.
Invasion, local spread
Person-to-person,
low inoculum
Fever, pain, diarrhea,


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Fungal
Candida albicans
Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
Protozoal
Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomoniasis
Parasitic
Phthirus pubis
Pediculosis pubis
Organism
Organism
Disease
Disease
Primary Syphilis
Primary Syphilis
Genital Herpes
Genital Herpes
Chancroid
Chancroid
Etiologic agent
Treponema pallidum
Herpes Simplex Virus
Haemophilus ducreyi
Incubation period
10–90 days
2–7 days
3–5 days
Usual clinical
presentation
Slightly tender papule
that ulcerates over 1 to
several weeks
Marked pain in genital
area; papules ulcerate
in 3–6 days; fever,
headache, malaise
and
inguinal adenopathy
common
Tender papule that
ulcerates
Diagnostic tests
Dark-field exam of
exudate from chancre;
serologic tests
Virus culture of
cells and fluid from
chancre; nucleic acid
amplification tests
Culture in at least two
kinds of enriched media
with vancomycin
Long-term
sequelae
Secondary syphilis
with mucocutaneous
lesions; tertiary syphilis
Recurrent genital
herpes
Inguinal bubo
Treatment
Benzathine penicillin G;


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a.
Tinea corporis
c.
Tinea cruris
b.
Tinea barbae
d.
Tinea unguium
9.
with gas gangrene?
Which of the following is a feature of the organism
commonly associated
a.
Spore forming
d.
a and b only
b.
Gram-negative bacilli
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Anaerobic
10.
Which of the following is also known as the "flesh-eating"
bacteria?
a.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Staphylococcus epidermidis


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pneumoniae from
a.
Gram stain
c.
Optochin test
b.
Culture
d.
Catalase test
10.
of infected patients?
Which of the following organisms is part of transient flora of
the
nasopharynx and produces infection characterized by bull
neck appearance
a.
Bordetella pertussis
c.
Legionella pneumophila
b.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Feature
Feature
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E
Common
name
"Infectious"
"Serum"
"Non-A,
non-B post
transfusion"
"Delta agent"
"Enteric
non-A,
non-B"
Virus
structure
Picornavirus;
capsid RNA
Hepadnavirus;
envelope, DNA
Flavivirus;
envelope, RNA
Viroid-like;
envelope,
circular RNA
Hepevirus;
Calicivirus
like capsid
Transmission
Fecal-oral
Parenteral,
sexual,
insidious
Parenteral,
sexual,
insidious
Parenteral,
sexual
Fecal-oral
Incubation
period (days)
15–50
45–160
14–180+
15–64
15–50
Severity
Mild
Occasionally
severe
Usually sub
clinical; 70%
chronicity


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d.
The organism can be grown in selective media such as chocolate
agar.
3.
Which of the following is a clinical presentation associated with
disseminated infection with the causative agent involved in the
case?
a.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
c.
Migratory arthralgia
b.
Ophthalmia neonatorum
d.
Urethritis
4.
wart-like lesions around the genitalia and perianal
areas?
Infection with which of the following is associated with development
of
a.
Haemophilus ducreyi
c.
Herpes simplex virus type 1
b.
Human papillomavirus
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
infection?
infection?
Which of the following organisms is associated with congenital or
Which of the following organisms is associated with congenital or
neonatal
neonatal
a.
Treponema pallidum
d.
a and b only
b.
Herpes simplex virus
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
6.
development of genital warts?
Which of the following HPV serotypes is most commonly
associated with
a.
Serotypes 1, 2, 3, and 4
c.
Serotypes 6 and 11


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birthday party where spaghetti
1.
Which of the following would be the primary
consideration?
a.
Typhoid fever
b.
Staphylococcal food poisoning
c.
Shigellosis
d.
Salmonella enterocolitis
2.
development of the symptoms of the children?
Which of the following is the probable mechanism involved
in the
a.
Invasion and destruction of mucosal epithelial
cells
b.
Elaboration of a cytotoxin by the organism
c.
Presence of preformed toxin in the contaminated
food
d.
Stimulation of excessive outpouring of fluid into the
intestinal lumen
3.
canned foods and ingestion of unpasteurized
honey?
Infection by which of the following organisms is associated
with home
a.
Bacillus cereus
c.
Staphylococcus aureus
b.
Clostridium botulinum
d.
Clostridium perfringens
4.
which of the following?
Food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus is associated
with ingestion of
a.
Rewarmed fried rice
c.
Smoked fish
b.
Shellfish
d.
Meat, custards, salads
5.
5.


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Milk, beef, eggs, poultry
Fever, pain, diarrhea
or
dysentery, bacteremia,
extra-intestinal
infection
Shigella spp.
Invasion, local spread
Person-to-person,
low inoculum
Fever, pain, diarrhea,
HUS, dysentery,
epidemic spread
Yersinia
enterocolitica
Invasion, dissemination
Milk, pork
Fever, pain, diarrhea,
extra-intestinal
infection
Vibrio cholerae
Enterotoxin, no invasion
Water, shellfish,
person-to-person
Watery diarrhea,
pandemic spread
Clostridium
difficile
Cytotoxin, local invasion
Nosocomial spread
Fever, pain, bloody
diarrhea, following
antibiotic use


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10.
with which of the following organisms?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication associated with infection
a.
ETEC, Shigella
c.
STEC, Shigella
b.
EIEC, Salmonella
d.
STEC, Salmonella
5.
5.
Which of the following hepatitis viruses can cause chronic infection?
Which of the following hepatitis viruses can cause chronic infection?
Organism
Organism
Disease
Disease
Bacterial
Neisseria gonorrhea
Gonorrhea
Haemophilus ducreyi
Chancroid
Treponema pallidum
Syphilis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Lymphogranuloma
venereum
Viral
HIV
AIDS
Herpes simplex virus
Genital/Perianal herpes
Human papillomavirus
Condylomata acuminata
Hepatitis viruses
Hepatitis
Zika virus
Zika fever


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a.
specimen.
b.
There is probable infection and there is need to repeat the procedure.
c.
There is significant bacteriuria, and patient definitely has UTI.
d.
None of the above
5.
Which virus can cause UTI?
a.
Adenovirus type 2
c.
Herpes simplex type
2
b.
Human papillomavirus
d.
Norwalk virus
6.
A patient presenting with fever and chills, flank pain with a (+) kidney
punch should be worked up for the presence of which of the following
infections?
a.
Urethritis
c.
Urethrocystitis
b.
Cystitis
d.
Pyelonephritis
7.
Which type of Escherichia coli is most commonly associated with UTI?
a.
ETEC
c.
EAEC
b.
EIEC
d.
EPEC
8.
The presence of which among the following in urine is highly suggestive
of
acute pyelonephritis?
a.
Numerous WBC
c.
Numerous RBC
b.
WBC casts
d.
RBC cast
9.
Cystitis is inflammation involving which of the following?
a.
Urinary bladder
c.
Urethra
b.
Renal tubules
d.
Renal glomerulus
10.
Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of UTI?
a.
Klebsiella pneumoniae


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insidious
Parenteral,
sexual,
insidious
Parenteral,
sexual
Fecal-oral
Incubation
period (days)
15–50
45–160
14–180+
15–64
15–50
Severity
Mild
Occasionally
severe
Usually sub
clinical; 70%
chronicity
Co-infection
or super
infection
with
HBV
Normal
patients,
mild;
pregnant
women,
severe
Chronicity/
Carrier state
No
Yes
Yes
Yes
No


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e.
a, b, and c
c.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
6.
development of genital warts?
Which of the following HPV serotypes is most commonly
associated with
a.
Serotypes 1, 2, 3, and 4
c.
Serotypes 6 and 11
b.
Serotypes 16 and 18
d.
b and c only
7.
virus?
Which of the following is correct regarding the human
immunodeficiency
a.
It is a DNA virus that has tropism for CD8+
T cells.
b.
It belongs to the family Retroviridae.
c.
infected cells.
It has the enzyme reverse transcriptase responsible for destroying
d.
Opportunistic infections are seen during the early stages of the
disease.
8.
recurrences of manifestations?
Infection with which of the following is characterized by latency
and
a.
Herpes simplex virus
c.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b.
Human papillomavirus
d.
Haemophilus ducreyi
9.
following?
Development of inguinal buboes is seen in infection with which of
the
a.
Treponema pallidum
c.
Haemophilus ducreyi
b.
Herpes simplex virus
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
10.
of the following?


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4.
which of the following?
Food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus is associated
with ingestion of
a.
Rewarmed fried rice
c.
Smoked fish
b.
Shellfish
d.
Meat, custards, salads
5.
5.
Which of the following hepatitis viruses can cause chronic infection?
Which of the following hepatitis viruses can cause chronic infection?
a.
Hepatitis A virus
d.
b and c only
b.
Hepatitis B virus
e.
a, b, and c
c.


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string_value:
b.
It possesses fibers that function for attachment.
c.
Adenoviruses are susceptible to mild
chlorination.
d.
keratoconjunctivitis.
Serotypes 3 and 7 are the most common causes of epidemic
3.
due to adenovirus?
Which of the following is correct regarding epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
a.
The most common causes are serotypes 8, 19,
and 23.
b.
pools.
The most common source of infection is unchlorinated swimming
c.
Corneal ulcerations are commonly seen.
d.
It is the most common cause of blindness.
4.
trachomatis?
Inclusion conjunctivitis is associated with which serotypes of Chlamydia
a.
L1, L2, and L3
c.
D – K
b.
A, B, Ba, and C
d.
None of these
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
transmitted by gnats?
transmitted by gnats?
Which of the following produces a purulent conjunctivitis
Which of the following produces a purulent conjunctivitis
that may be
that may be
a.
Chlamydia trachomatis
c.
Staphylococcus aureus
b.
Haemophilus aegypticus
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
6.
birth canal?


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string_value:
a.
Measles virus
c.
Adenovirus
b.
Herpes simplex virus
d.
Enterovirus 70
5.
5.
transmitted by gnats?
transmitted by gnats?
Which of the following produces a purulent conjunctivitis
Which of the following produces a purulent conjunctivitis
that may be
that may be
Normal
Normal
Bacterial
Bacterial
Viral
Viral
Fungal
Fungal
Appearance
Watery and
clear
Turbid
Clear
Slightly turbid
Predominant
cell types
All lymphocytes
Usually PMNs
Lymphocytes;
may be mixed
with PMNs
during
first 24-48 hours
Usually
lymphocytes
Glucose
2.5–3.5 mmol/L
(50% of blood
glucose)
< 50% of blood
glucose; may be
markedly low
Usually normal
< 50% of blood
glucose; may
be
markedly low
Protein (g/L)
< 40 mg/dL
Elevated
Elevated
Elevated
WBC
0–5 (all
mononuclear)
Markedly increased
Normal to
slightly
increased
Elevated
Enteroviruses
Enteroviruses
Tick-borne virus
Tick-borne virus
Poliovirus
Powassan virus
Coxsackievirus
Others
Herpesviruses
Measles virus
HSV type 1 and type 2
Rubella virus
Epstein-Barr Virus


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b.
Human immunodeficiency virus
c.
Haemophilus ducreyi
d.
Human papillomavirus
5.
5.
infection?
infection?
Which of the following organisms is associated with congenital or
Which of the following organisms is associated with congenital or
neonatal
neonatal
Clinical Condition
Clinical Condition
Characteristic Symptoms
Characteristic Symptoms
Lower Urinary Tract Infection
Urethritis
Dysuria, frequency, urgency
Cystitis
Suprapubic pain and tenderness, frequency, occasional
hematuria
Urethrocystitis
May be asymptomatic; usually malodorous urine, especially
in
women; incontinence
Upper Urinary Tract Infection
Acute Pyelonephritis
Flank pain, fever, and chills; hematuria; (+) kidney punch
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
nor flank
pain.
Case: A 26-year-old sexually active female consulted a
physician because of increased


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a.
Urinary bladder
c.
Urethra
b.
Renal tubules
d.
Renal glomerulus
10.
Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of UTI?
a.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
c.
Escherichia coli
b.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d.
Proteus mirabilis
4.
4.
If urine culture was done for the above given case and the colony count is
If urine culture was done for the above given case and the colony count is
97,000 cfu/hpf, what will be your interpretation?
97,000 cfu/hpf, what will be your interpretation?
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
1.
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following?
a.
Herpes simplex virus
c.
Coxsackie A24
b.
Enterovirus 71
d.
Adenovirus
2.
Which of the following is a feature of adenovirus?
a.
It has a double-stranded RNA genome.


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9.
following?
Development of inguinal buboes is seen in infection with which of
the
a.
Treponema pallidum
c.
Haemophilus ducreyi
b.
Herpes simplex virus
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
10.
of the following?
Malignant transformation of infected cells can occur in infection
with which
a.
Herpes simplex virus


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St. Louis encephalitis
Flavivirus
Culex mosquito
California encephalitis
Bunyavirus
Culex mosquito
Disease
Disease
Etiology
Etiology
Vector
Vector
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer
on the space provided.
neck rigidity. There is no history of immunization.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
Case: A 10-year-old child was rushed to the ER because of
drowsiness and confusion.
The condition started as high-grade fever, severe headache,
nausea, and vomiting. Later,
the child was noted to be drowsy and confused. Physical
examination was significant for
1.
Which of the following tests will you recommend?
a.
Gram stain of respiratory secretions
b.
MRI of the brain
c.
CSF analysis
d.
All of the above
2.
what would you entertain?
If examination of the patient's cerebrospinal fluid showed
elevated white
blood cells, markedly decreased glucose and markedly
elevated protein,
a.
Bacterial meningitis
c.


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Which of the following produces a purulent conjunctivitis
that may be
that may be
a.
Chlamydia trachomatis
c.
Staphylococcus aureus
b.
Haemophilus aegypticus
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
6.
birth canal?
Which of the following can be transmitted by passage
through an infected
a.
Chlamydia trachomatis
c.
Staphylococcus aureus
b.
Haemophilus aegypticus
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
7.
pigment and a characteristic fruity or grape-like
odor in culture?
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen that
produces a bluish
a.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Chlamydia trachomatis
b.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
8.
following?
Trachoma is a chronic eye infection that presents with
which of the
a.
Follicular conjunctivitis
c.
Purulent conjunctivitis
b.
Mucopurulent eye discharge
d.
Sub-epithelial corneal opacities
9.
Which of the following is a feature of viral
conjunctivitis?
a.
Highly contagious
c.
Prominent photophobia
b.
Purulent eye discharge
d.
a, b, and c
10.
ulcers?


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Enteroviruses
Enteroviruses
Tick-borne virus
Tick-borne virus
Poliovirus
Powassan virus
Coxsackievirus
Others
Herpesviruses
Measles virus
HSV type 1 and type 2
Rubella virus
Epstein-Barr Virus
Mumps virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Rabies virus
Mosquito-borne
viruses
Togaviruses
Flaviviruses
Tuberculoid Form (neural
Tuberculoid Form (neural
form)
form)
Lepromatous Form (cutaneous form)
Lepromatous Form (cutaneous form)
Skin Lesions
Hypopigmented lesions
Nodular lesions (diffuse)
Amount of bacilli
in
lesions
Paucibacillary (very few)
Multibacillary (abundant)
Immune response
Strong CMI reaction
Strong antibody response; defective CMI
Sensory loss
Complete
Patchy
Disfigurement
None
Leonine facies, clawed hands, saddle
nose
deformity
Tuberculoid Form (neural
Tuberculoid Form (neural
form)
form)
Lepromatous Form (cutaneous form)
Lepromatous Form (cutaneous form)
Lepromin test
Positive
Negative
Infectivity
Low
High


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on the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
nor flank
pain.
Case: A 26-year-old sexually active female consulted a
physician because of increased
frequency of urination and burning sensation at the end of
urination. There is no fever
1.
predispose to development of UTI?
Which of the following predisposing factors present in the
patient can
a.
Female gender
d.
a and c only
b.
Age of patient
e.
a, b, and c
c.
Sexual activity
2.
reasons?
UTI is more common among females because of which of
the following
a.
Women have longer urethra than males.
b.
Anatomic variations are more commonly
encountered in females.
c.
opening than in males.
The urethral orifice in women is closer in proximity to the
anal
d.
All of the above
3.
with nosocomial infections that produces a
distinctive red pigment?
Which of the following is a gram-negative bacillus commonly
associated
a.
Enterococcus faecalis
c.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b.
Serratia marcescens


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Cold-loving
c.
Infects immunocompetent individuals
d.
Growth in increased CO2
concentration
6.
lepromatous leprosy?
Which of the following is more a feature of tuberculoid leprosy than
a.
Intact cell-mediated immunity
b.
Saddle nose deformity
c.
Numerous bacilli in lesions
d.
Negative lepromin skin test
7.
Flaccid paralysis is a feature of infection caused by which of the
following?
a.
Clostridium botulinum
c.
Mycobacterium leprae
b.
Poliovirus
d.
a and b only
8.
Which form of poliomyelitis involves the respiratory center in the
medulla?
a.
Asymptomatic infection
c.
Non-paralytic poliomyelitis
b.
Bulbar poliomyelitis
d.
Post-poliomyelitis syndrome
9.
category of rabies exposure?
Administration of rabies vaccine and RIG is recommended for which
a.
Category I
c.
Category III
b.
Category II
d.
Categories II and III
10.
encephalitis?
Infection with which of the following viral causes does not cause
a.
Japanese B encephalitis
c.
Eastern equine encephalitis
b.
Yellow fever
d.


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Exanthem
Maculopapular
Maculopapular
Branny desquamation
Yes
No
Lymphadenopathy
None
Present
Arthralgia
None
Present
Congenital infection
No
Yes
Vaccine
Yes
Yes
Features
Features
Rubeola
Rubeola
Rubella
Rubella
Features
Features
Varicella
Varicella
Variola
Variola
Common name
Chickenpox
Smallpox
Mode of transmission
Inhalation, direct contact
Inhalation, direct contact
Exanthem
Vesicular
Vesicular
Eruption of lesions
Crops of different stages
Lesions appear one stage at a
time
Scar formation
Rare
Common
Latency
Yes
No
Severity
Children: mild, self-limited
Generally severe and fatal
Adults: severe
Vaccine
Yes
Yes
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct
answer on the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case
study, then answer the following
only on one side of her trunk, which were
very painful, hence the consult.
Case: A 53-year-old female sought consult with her
primary care physician due to


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2.
patient's infection?
Which of the following is not a feature of the
causative agent of the
a.
Enveloped DNA virus
b.
Infects mucoepithelial cells
c.
Establish latency in nerve ganglia
d.
No vaccine available against the virus
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
3.
3.
Which of the following is a feature that
Which of the following is a feature that
will differentiate the patient's
will differentiate the patient's
condition from the primary infection
condition from the primary infection
(chickenpox)?
(chickenpox)?
Rashes are
generalized.
a.
b.
Pain is a prominent feature.
c.
Rashes appear one stage at a time.
d.
It is caused by a double-stranded RNA
virus.
4.
Which of the following is also known as
"sixth disease"?
a.
Rubeola
c.
Roseola infantum
b.
Rubella
d.
Erythema infectiosum
5.
associated with development of
congenital infection in the baby?
Infection with which of the following
viruses during pregnancy is
a.
Rubella
c.
Roseola infantum
b.
Rubeola
d.
Erythema infectiosum
6.


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what would you entertain?
If examination of the patient's cerebrospinal fluid showed
elevated white
blood cells, markedly decreased glucose and markedly
elevated protein,
a.
Bacterial meningitis
c.
Fungal meningitis
b.
Viral meningitis
d.
Tuberculous meningitis
3.
based on the child's age?
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's
condition
a.
Escherichia coli
b.
Haemophilus influenzae type b
c.
Neisseria meningitidis
d.
Listeria monocytogenes
4.
4.
which of the following organisms causing bacterial
which of the following organisms causing bacterial
meningitis?
meningitis?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a consequence of
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a consequence of
dissemination of
dissemination of
a.
Escherichia coli
b.
Haemophilus influenzae type b
c.
Neisseria meningitidis
d.
Streptococcus agalactiae
5.
Which of the following is a feature of Listeria
monocytogenes?
a.
Gram-positive cocci
b.


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d.
Sub-epithelial corneal opacities
9.
Which of the following is a feature of viral
conjunctivitis?
a.
Highly contagious
c.
Prominent photophobia
b.
Purulent eye discharge
d.
a, b, and c
10.
ulcers?
Which of the following may present with dendritic keratitis
and corneal


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distinctive red pigment?
Which of the following is a gram-negative bacillus commonly
associated
a.
Enterococcus faecalis
c.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b.
Serratia marcescens
d.
Proteus mirabilis
4.
4.
If urine culture was done for the above given case and the colony count is
If urine culture was done for the above given case and the colony count is
97,000 cfu/hpf, what will be your interpretation?
97,000 cfu/hpf, what will be your interpretation?
The result is insignificant and just shows contamination of the


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Category II
d.
Categories II and III
10.
encephalitis?
Infection with which of the following viral causes does not cause
a.
Japanese B encephalitis
c.
Eastern equine encephalitis
b.
Yellow fever
d.
St. Louis encephalitis
4.
4.
which of the following organisms causing bacterial
which of the following organisms causing bacterial
meningitis?
meningitis?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a consequence of
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a consequence of
dissemination of
dissemination of
Features
Features
Rubeola
Rubeola
Rubella
Rubella
Common name
Measles
German measles
Etiology
Paramyxovirus
Togavirus
Mode/s of transmission
Inhalation of droplets
Inhalation, transplacental
Fever
Present
Present
3 Cs (coryza, cough,
conjunctivitis)
Present; conjunctivitis
with
photophobia
Cough and coryza absent;
conjunctivitis without
photophobia


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study, then answer the following
only on one side of her trunk, which were
very painful, hence the consult.
Case: A 53-year-old female sought consult with her
primary care physician due to
appearance of painful, vesicular rashes on her
trunk. The condition started 3 days prior
to consult as low-grade fever and headache. Later,
she noted tingling sensation on one
area of her trunk. One day prior to consultation,
fluid-filled rashes appeared limited
Physical examination: Temp: 38 °C
RR:
18/minute
PR: 90 beats/minute
Skin:
distribution
(+) vesicular rashes on right side of trunk following
a single dermatomal
Chest and Lungs:
wheezes.
No intercostal or subcostal retractions on
inspection. On
auscultation, there are no rales heard on both lung
fields. No
The rest of the physical examination findings
were unremarkable.
1.
Which of the following will be your primary
consideration?
a.
Chickenpox
c.
German
measles
b.
Shingles
d.
Herpes simplex infection


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9.
Fifth disease is caused by which of the
following viruses?
a.
Rubeola virus
c.
Parvovirus B19
b.
Rubella virus
d.
Varicella-zoster virus
10.
Which of the following has been eradicated
due to success of the vaccine?
a.
Chickenpox
c.
Rubella
b.
Parvovirus B19
d.
Smallpox
3.
3.
Which of the following is a feature that
Which of the following is a feature that
will differentiate the patient's
will differentiate the patient's
condition from the primary infection
condition from the primary infection
(chickenpox)?
(chickenpox)?
Features
Features
Dengue Fever
Dengue Fever
Chikungunya
Chikungunya
Etiology
Dengue Virus - Flavivirus
Alphavirus - Flavivirus
Vector
Aedes aegypti (rural)
Aedes aegypti (rural)
Aedes albopictus
(urban)
Aedes albopictus
(urban)
Incubation Period
2–7 days
2–4 days
Age Group
All ages
All ages
% Symptomatic
20–60%
70%
Symptoms
Fever
Present
Present
Headache
Severe
Mild
Rash
Present
Present
Retroorbital pain
Present
Absent
Joint pain
Present
More severe
Sequelae


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Erythema nodosum
leprosum
Absent
Usually present
Tuberculoid Form (neural
Tuberculoid Form (neural
form)
form)
Lepromatous Form (cutaneous form)
Lepromatous Form (cutaneous form)
Category of Exposure
Category of Exposure
Management
Management
Category I
1.
Wash exposed skin immediately with soap
and water.
1.
2.
Feeding/touching the animal
Licking of intact skin (with reliable history
and
thorough physical examination)
2.
No vaccine or RIG needed
3.
Pre-exposure prophylaxis may be
considered
3.
Exposure to patient with signs and
symptoms
of rabies by sharing or eating and drinking
utensils
for high-risk persons.
4.
Casual contact (talking to, visiting, and
feeding suspected rabies cases) and routine
delivery of health care to patient with signs
and symptoms of rabies
Category of Exposure
Category of Exposure
Management
Management
Category II
1.
Wash wound with soap and water.
1.
Nibbling of uncovered skin with or without
2.
Start vaccine immediately.
2.
bruising/hematoma


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b.
Culex sp.
d.
Mansonia sp.
3.
it would be categorized as which of the following?
Based on the clinical presentation, if the patient has
dengue virus infection,
a.
Classic Dengue Fever
c.
Dengue Shock Syndrome
b.
Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever
d.
None of them
4.
infection and not in chikungunya?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is seen in
dengue virus
a.
Fever
c.
Joint pain
b.
Rash
d.
Retroorbital pain
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
5.
5.
Which of the following is not true of
Which of the following is not true of
cytomegalovirus?
cytomegalovirus?
a.
Most common viral cause of
congenital infections
b.
Can be transmitted through tissue
transplantation
c.
Causes latent infection in B cells
d.
Causes enlargement of infected
cells
6.
infected patients is suggestive of
infection with which of the
following?
Demonstration of atypical T
lymphocytes in hematologic
examination of
a.
Epstein-Barr virus
c.
Cytomegalovirus
b.
Zika virus
d.
Chikungunya virus
7.
Which of the following is


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Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
Tick
Rickettsialpox
Rickettsia akari
Mite
Epidemic typhus
Rickettsia prowazekii
Louse
Murine typhus
Rickettsia typhi
Flea
Scrub typhus
Orientia tsutsugamushi
Mite
Ehrlichiosis
Human monocyte ehrlichiosis
Human granulocyte ehrlichiosis
Ewingii ehrlichiosis
Ehrlichia chaffeensis
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
Ehrlichia ewingii
Tick
Tick
Tick
Q fever
Coxiella burnetii
None
Disease
Disease
Etiology
Etiology
Vector
Vector
Disease
Disease
Organism
Organism
Vector
Vector
Reservoir
Reservoir
Rocky Mountain
spotted fever
R. rickettsii
Tick-borne
Ticks, wild rodents
Ehrlichiosis
E. chaffeensis
Ticks
Rickettsialpox
R. akari
Mite-borne
Mites, wild rodents
Scrub typhus
R. tsutsugamushi
Mites (chiggers), wild
rodents
Epidemic typhus
R. prowazekii
Louse-borne
Humans, squirrel fleas, flying
squirrels
Trench fever
R. quintana
Humans
Murine typhus
R. typhi
Flea-borne
Wild rodents
Q fever
C. burnetii
None*
Cattle, sheep, goats, cats
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:


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associated with development of
congenital infection in the baby?
Infection with which of the following
viruses during pregnancy is
a.
Rubella
c.
Roseola infantum
b.
Rubeola
d.
Erythema infectiosum
6.
Which of the following clinical features is
seen in rubella but not in
rubeola?
a.
Post-auricular lymphadenopathy
b.
Cough and coryza
c.
Koplik's spots
d.
Branny desquamation of rashes
7.
The following present with
maculopapular rashes, except:
a.
Rubeola
c.
Rubella
b.
Smallpox
d.
Roseola infantum
8.
"Slapped cheek" appearance is
associated with which of the following?
a.
Erythema infectiosum
c.
Roseola infantum
b.
Varicella
d.
Rubeola


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Age Group
All ages
All ages
% Symptomatic
20–60%
70%
Symptoms
Fever
Present
Present
Headache
Severe
Mild
Rash
Present
Present
Retroorbital pain
Present
Absent
Joint pain
Present
More severe
Sequelae
DHF or DSS
Crippling arthritis
Vaccine
Yes
None
Features
Features
Mononucleosis-like
Mononucleosis-like
Syndrome (CMV)
Syndrome (CMV)
Infectious
Infectious
Mononucleosis
Mononucleosis
(EBV)
(EBV)
Etiology
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein-Barr Virus
Mode of transmission
Oral secretions
Oral secretions
Fever + lymphadenopathy
Present but milder
Present
Sore throat
Present but milder
Present
Hepatosplenomegaly
Present
Present
Lymphocytosis
Present
Present
Atypical lymphocytes
Present
Present
Heterophil antibody test
Negative
Positive
Disease
Disease
Etiology
Etiology
Vector
Vector


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b.
incubation period (1-5 days).
c.
Its natural reservoir is the fruit bat.
d.
Infection produced is mild and self-
limiting.
5.
5.
Which of the following is not true of
Which of the following is not true of
cytomegalovirus?
cytomegalovirus?
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
Column A
Column A
1.
Mirror or illuminator
2.
Condenser
3.
Diaphragm
4.
Coarse adjustment
knob
5.
Fine adjustment knob
6.
Eye piece
7.
Objective lenses
8.
Low-power objective
9.
High-power objective
10.
Oil immersion
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
1.
Which of the following is correct regarding the electron microscope?
a.
It utilizes transmitted light as the source of illumination.
b.
It can magnify an object up to 1,000 times its size.
c.
Objectives are used to focus the beam of light to the object.
d.
It is used to visualize viruses and the subcellular structures of a
cell.
2.


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kinds of enriched media
with vancomycin
Long-term
sequelae
Secondary syphilis
with mucocutaneous
lesions; tertiary syphilis
Recurrent genital
herpes
Inguinal bubo
Treatment
Benzathine penicillin G;
doxycycline if allergic
to
penicillin
Acyclovir, famciclovir,
or valacyclovir
Ceftriaxone,
azithromycin,
erythromycin, or
ciprofloxacin
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then answer the
following
hospitality worker upon his return from his stint
abroad.
Case: A 32-year-old seaman consulted a local hospital because of
painful urination and a
purulent penile discharge, which started several days after engaging
in casual sex with a
1.
The patient is most likely suffering from which of the
following?
a.
Gonorrhea
b.
Lymphogranuloma venereum
c.
Genital herpes
d.
Syphilis
2.
Which of the following is true of the disease and its
etiologic agent?
a.


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a.
Confocal microscope
b.
Brightfield microscope
c.
Interference contrast microscope
d.
Fluorescence microscope
4.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the darkfield
microscope?
a.
It is used to demonstrate viruses.
b.
It utilizes transmitted light.
c.
The specimen appears bright against a dark background.
d.
It has a contrast-enhancing optical technique.
5.
Which of the following types of microscopes makes use of ultraviolet
light and fluorescent dyes?
a.
Phase-contrast microscope
b.
Fluorescence microscope
c.
Interference contrast microscope
d.
Compound microscope
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
Features
Features
Eukaryotic
Eukaryotic
Cell
Cell
Prokaryotic
Prokaryotic
Cell
Cell
Nucleus enclosed by nuclear
membrane
Larger ribosome
Membrane-bound organelles
Complex cell wall
Mostly unicellular


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following?
Demonstration of atypical T
lymphocytes in hematologic
examination of
a.
Epstein-Barr virus
c.
Cytomegalovirus
b.
Zika virus
d.
Chikungunya virus
7.
Which of the following is
transmitted by the bite of the
human body louse?
a.
Rickettsia prowazekii
c.
Orientia tsutsugamushi
b.
Rickettsia rickettsii
d.
Rickettsia typhi
8.
Brill-Zinsser disease is a
recrudescent infection seen in which
of the
following?
a.
Rickettsialpox
c.
Epidemic typhus
b.
Endemic typhus
d.
Scrub typhus
9.
Weil's disease or infective jaundice is
associated with infection caused by
which of the following?
a.
Borrelia burgdorferi
c.
Leptospira interrogans
b.
Ehrlichia chaffeenensis
d.
Coxiella burnetti
10.
Which of the following is true of
Nipah virus?
a.
It belongs to the family
Herpesviridae.
The infection produced has a short


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Category of Exposure
Management
Management
Category II
1.
Wash wound with soap and water.
1.
Nibbling of uncovered skin with or without
2.
Start vaccine immediately.
2.
bruising/hematoma
Minor/superficial scratches/abrasions
without
3.
Complete vaccination regimen until Day 7
regardless of status of biting animal.
bleeding, including those induced to bleed.
4.
RIG is not indicated.
Category III
1.
Wash wound with soap and water.
1.
Transdermal bites (puncture wounds,
2.
Start the vaccine and RIG immediately.
lacerations, avulsions) or scratches/abrasions
with spontaneous bleeding
3.
Complete vaccination until Day 7
regardless
of the status of the biting animal.
2.
Licks on broken skin or mucous membrane
3.
Exposure to a rabies patient through bites,
contamination of mucous membranes (eyes,
oral/nasal mucosa, genital/anal mucous
membrane) or open skin lesions with body
fluids through splattering and mouth-to
mouth resuscitation
4.
Unprotected handling of infected carcass
5.


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Humans, squirrel fleas, flying
squirrels
Trench fever
R. quintana
Humans
Murine typhus
R. typhi
Flea-borne
Wild rodents
Q fever
C. burnetii
None*
Cattle, sheep, goats, cats
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then
answer the following
Case: A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ER because of
nose bleeding and vomiting
of blood. The patient was apparently well until 4 days prior
to admission when the
mosquitoes while playing with friends prior to
development of the symptoms.
patient developed moderate-grade fever, headache, and
muscle pains over the lower
extremities. Two days prior to admission, the
maculopapular rashes were noted over
the trunk and extremities. Few minutes prior to admission,
the patient had epistaxis and
two bouts of hematemesis. The mother reported that he
had a history of being bitten by
1.
Which of the following infections would be the


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Obligate
intracellular
parasite
Exist as cyst and/or
trophozoite
Dinoflagellates
Characteristic
Characteristic
Bacteria
Bacteria
Fungi
Fungi
Viruses
Viruses
Protozoa
Protozoa
Algae
Algae
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
B.
B.
Indicate the function of the different reagents used in Gram staining given in
Indicate the function of the different reagents used in Gram staining given in
the
the
table below, and the expected result. Write the letter/number corresponding to
your answer.
Expected Result
Expected Result
Reagent
Function
Gram-positive
Gram-negative
Crystal violet
Gram's iodine
95% Alcohol
Safranin
Features
Features
Gram-positive Cell
Gram-positive Cell
Wall
Wall
Gram-negative Cell
Gram-negative Cell
Wall
Wall
Multilayered
peptidoglycan
Porins (protein
channels)
Teichoic acid
Lipopolysaccharide
complexes
Outer membrane
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
B.
B.
Differentiate between the two methods of acid-fast staining by filling out the


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C.
C.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
Growth
Growth
Obtained
Obtained
Exposure to Heat
Bacillus subtilis
Escherichia
coli
Autoclave at 15 psi for 15
minutes
Boiling water for 30 minutes
Heating at 60 °C for 1 hour
Chemical Agent
Chemical Agent
Growth Observed
Growth Observed
Control
1:1000 Zephiran
70% alcohol
Providone-iodine
1.
1.
It is a method of sterilization that involves the physical separation of
It is a method of sterilization that involves the physical separation of
microorganisms from the fluid.
microorganisms from the fluid.
2.
This method is utilized to deprive the organisms of moisture.
3.
This method is used to destroy disease-causing microorganisms in milk,
milk products, food, and beverages.
4.


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It can magnify an object up to 1,000 times its size.
c.
Objectives are used to focus the beam of light to the object.
d.
It is used to visualize viruses and the subcellular structures of a
cell.
2.
Which type of microscope is used to study molecular and atomic
shapes of an organism on a nanoscale and determine variations in
temperature inside the cell?
a.
Electron microscope
c.
Confocal microscope
b.
Scanning probe microscope
d.
Phase-contrast microscope
3.
Which of the following types of microscopes is useful in studying the
physiology of the cell?


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following?
a.
Gonorrhea
b.
Lymphogranuloma venereum
c.
Genital herpes
d.
Syphilis
2.
Which of the following is true of the disease and its
etiologic agent?
a.
It is the most common sexually transmitted infection worldwide.
b.
It is caused by a gram-positive kidney-bean shaped diplococcus.
c.
Women usually present with symptoms.


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Features
Features
Eukaryotic
Eukaryotic
Cell
Cell
Prokaryotic
Prokaryotic
Cell
Cell
Nucleus enclosed by nuclear
membrane
Larger ribosome
Membrane-bound organelles
Complex cell wall
Mostly unicellular
Characteristic
Characteristic
Bacteria
Bacteria
Fungi
Fungi
Viruses
Viruses
Protozoa
Protozoa
Algae
Algae
Acellular
Ergosterol in the
cell
membrane
Prokaryotic


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2.
Lophotrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
Monotrichous
3.
Lophotrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
Monotrichous
4.
Lophotrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
Monotrichous
1.
1.
Lophotrichous
Lophotrichous
Peritrichous
Peritrichous
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
a.
Cell wall
Adherence and conjugation
2.
b.
Cell membrane
Protein synthesis
3.
c.
Lipopolysaccharide
(LPS)
For storage of food and energy
4.
d.
Ribosomes
Resistance to adverse
5.
Nucleoid
environmental conditions
6.
e.
Granules
Motility
7.
f.
Pili
Resistance to phagocytosis
8.
g.
Flagella
Endotoxin activity
9.
h.
Endospores
Gives form and rigidity to the
cell
10.
i.
Capsule
Site of ATP production
j.
Contains the genetic material of
the bacteria
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
Antibiotic
Antibiotic
Zone Size
Zone Size
Interpretation*
Interpretation*


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channels)
Teichoic acid
Lipopolysaccharide
complexes
Outer membrane
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
B.
B.
Differentiate between the two methods of acid-fast staining by filling out the
Differentiate between the two methods of acid-fast staining by filling out the
table
table
below with the letter/number corresponding to your answer.
EXPECTED RESULT
EXPECTED RESULT
REAGENT
FUNCTION
Ziehl-Neelsen
Kinyoun
Carbolfuchsin
Acid alcohol
Safranin


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the patient had epistaxis and
two bouts of hematemesis. The mother reported that he
had a history of being bitten by
1.
Which of the following infections would be the
primary consideration?
a.
Chikungunya
c.
Zika virus infection
b.
Dengue
d.
Nipah virus infection
2.
condition?
Which of the following is the vector of the pathogen
causing the patient's
a.
Anopheles flavirostris
c.
Aedes aegypti


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2.
This method is utilized to deprive the organisms of moisture.
3.
This method is used to destroy disease-causing microorganisms in milk,
milk products, food, and beverages.
4.
At 15 psi, the temperature reaches 121°C, requiring only 15–20 minutes to
sterilize the material.
5.
The material to be sterilized is exposed to live steam for 30 minutes for
3 consecutive days.
6.
This chemical agent is used as a standard for evaluating new chemical
agents.
7.
This chemical agent is used as water disinfectant.
8.
This chemical agent is a phenol derivative that is less toxic and more
potent
than phenol.
9.
It is considered the best antiseptic.
10.
It is used as prophylaxis for ophthalmia neonatorum.
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
1.
1.
Lophotrichous
Lophotrichous
Peritrichous
Peritrichous
Amphitrichous
Monotrichous


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oral/nasal mucosa, genital/anal mucous
membrane) or open skin lesions with body
fluids through splattering and mouth-to
mouth resuscitation
4.
Unprotected handling of infected carcass
5.
Ingestion of raw infected meat
6.
Exposure to bats
7.
All Category II exposures on head and neck
area
Disease
Disease
Etiology
Etiology
Vector
Vector
Japanese B encephalitis
Flavivirus
Aedes mosquito
Eastern Equine encephalitis
Togavirus
Culiseta
mosquito
Western Equine
encephalitis
Togavirus
Culex mosquito


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From entry of pathogen
to appearance of initial
manifestations
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Carrier
a.
Insects that transmit infection
2.
Fomite
b.
Presence of bacteria in the
blood
3.
Vector
c.
Person harboring the organism
4.
Vehicle
without signs and symptoms of
5.
Septicemia
the disease
6.
Fulminant infection
d.
Hospital-acquired infections
7.
Nosocomial
infection
e.
A disease constantly present in
a
population at low levels
8.
Endemic disease
f.
Inanimate object which can
carry
9.
Bacteremia
microorganisms
10.
Viremia
g.
Multiplying bacteria in the
bloodstream
h.
Biological substances that can
carry organisms
i.
Presence of viruses in the
bloodstream
j.
Infection that always leads to
death
Feature
Feature
Exotoxin
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Endotoxin
Bacterial source
Toxicity
Stability to heat
Antigenicity
Fever
production
A.
A.
Fill out the following
Fill out the following
tables.
tables.
----
--
--
--------------------------------
--


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Both a and b
b.
Test tube method
d.
Neither a nor b
4.
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for resistance to
antibiotics?
a.
Lack of enzymes that would accelerate antibiotic metabolism
b.
Production of proteins with similar structure as the antibiotic
c.
Development of efflux pumps that prevent accumulation of the
antibiotic
d.
Expression of resistance genes that will cause accumulation of the
antibiotic in the host
5.
Which of the following combinations of antibiotic and mechanism of action
is correct?
a.
Cell wall inhibition – Penicillin
b.
Cell membrane alteration – Vancomycin
c.
Protein synthesis inhibition – Nystatin
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
A.
A.
MATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.


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Antibiotic
Antibiotic
Zone Size
Zone Size
Interpretation*
Interpretation*
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
1.
Which of the following is correct regarding the importance of antibiotic
susceptibility testing (AST)?
a.
It will aid the physician as to the appropriate antibiotic to give the
patient.
b.
It will prevent resistance because it will indicate how long the drug
must be given.
c.
It will aid in the choice of what culture media to use.
d.
It will test development of hypersensitivity (allergic) reaction to a
certain antibiotic.
2.
Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial
agent?
a.
Narrow spectrum of activity
b.
Must remain longer in liquid form
c.
With preventable adverse effects
d.
Toxic to microbial cell but not to humans
3.
What is the method of antibiotic susceptibility testing used to determine the


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3.
parasites?
Cysticercus cellulosae is the infective stage for which of the
following
a.
Taenia solium
c.
Hymenolepis nana
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Taenia saginata
4.
Which of the following cestodes has two intermediate hosts?
a.
Diphyllobothrium latum
c.
Hymenolepis nana
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Taenia saginata
5.
Which of the following cestodes has no obligatory intermediate
host?
a.
Taenia solium
c.
Hymenolepis nana
Echinococcus granulosus
b.
Taenia saginata
d.
6.
The following are intestinal cestodes,
except:
a.
Taenia solium
c.
Taenia saginata
b.
Hymenolepis nana
d.
Echinococcus granulosus
A.
A.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
space provided.
7.
7.
Which of the following is a characteristic of
Which of the following is a characteristic of
Hymenolepis nana?
Hymenolepis nana?
a.
The freshwater fish is its intermediate host.
b.


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Immunological memory
Property
Property
Innate
Innate
Immunity
Immunity
Adaptive immunity
Adaptive immunity
Hypersensitivity
Hypersensitivity
Reaction
Reaction
Descriptive name
Descriptive name
Mediator(s)
Mediator(s)
Example(s)
Example(s)
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Column
Column
A
A
Column B
Column B
1.
IgG
a.
Indicative
of
allergic
reactions
and
parasitic
2.
IgM
infections
3.
IgA
b.
Serves as surface markers for B cells
4.
IgE
c.
Found in body secretions like the saliva and
tears
5.
IgD
d.
Predominant antibody during chronic infections
e.
Predominant antibody during acute infections
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Bone marrow
a.
Primary lymphoid organ
2.
Spleen
b.
Secondary lymphoid
organ
3.
Appendix
4.
Thymus
5.
Mucosa-associated lymphoid
tissues
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
A.
A.
Match the protozoans in Column A with their
Match the protozoans in Column A with their
respective vectors in Column B.
respective vectors in Column B.
Column A
Column
B
1.


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4.
Plasmodium spp.
d.
Glossina/tsetse
fly
B.
(Column
A).
Match the Plasmodium species (Column B) with their
respective characteristics
Column A
Column B
1.
Natural parasite of macaque monkeys
a.
Plasmodium ovale
2.
Infects both young and old RBCs
b.
Plasmodium vivax
3.
Cycle of fever every 72 hours
c.
Plasmodium malariae
4.
Malignant tertian malaria
d.
Plasmodium
falciparum
5.
Maurer's dots
e.
Plasmodium knowlesi
6.
Schuffner's dots
f.
d and e only
7.
Infects old red blood cells
g.
a and b only
A.
A.
Match the protozoans in Column A with their
Match the protozoans in Column A with their
respective vectors in Column B.
respective vectors in Column B.
Column
Column
A
A
Column B
Column B
1.
Entamoeba histolytica
a.
Bite of arthropod vector
2.
Naegleria fowleri
b.
Ingestion of
contaminated
3.
Acanthamoeba sp.
food or water
4.
Giardia lamblia
c.
Sexual contact
5.
Trichomonas vaginalis
d.
Transnasal
6.
Toxoplasma gondii
e.
Transplacental
7.
Plasmodium sp.
f.
b and e only
8.


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Paragonimus westermani
b.
Fasciola hepatica
d.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
B.
B.
MATCHING TYPE. Match the following parasites in Column A with
MATCHING TYPE. Match the following parasites in Column A with
their
their
common names in Column B.
common names in Column B.
Column A
Column B
1.
Fasciolopsis buski
a.
Blood fluke
2.
Paragonimus westermani
b.
Sheep liver fluke
3.
Fasciola hepatica
c.
Lung fluke
4.
Clonorchis sinensis
d.
Intestinal fluke
5.
Schistosoma japonicum
e.
Chinese liver
fluke
Parasite
Parasite
First Intermediate Host
First Intermediate Host
Second Intermediate Host
Second Intermediate Host
Schistosoma spp.
Clonorchis
sinensis
Paragonimus
westermani
Fasciolopsis buski
Fasciola hepatica
Parasite
Parasite
Site of Infection
Site of Infection
Associated Complication
Associated Complication
Schistosoma
japonicum
Schistosoma mansoni
Schistosoma


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10.
the following cestodes?
Humans serve as both definitive and
intermediate host for which of
a.
Taenia saginata
c.
Taenia solium
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Diphyllobothrium
latum
B.
MATCHING TYPE. Match the following parasites with
their common names
(Column A) and respective intermediate host
(Column B). On the first blank, write
the letter of your choice from Column A. On the
second blank, write the Roman
numeral of your choice from Column B.
Column A
Column B
1.
Taenia saginata
a.
Broad fish tapeworm
i.
Pig
2.
Taenia solium
b.
Pork tapeworm
ii.
Freshwater fish
3.
Hymenolepis nana
c.
Dog tapeworm
iii.
Cattle
4.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Dwarf tapeworm
iv.
Sheep
7.
7.
Which of the following is a characteristic of
Which of the following is a characteristic of
Hymenolepis nana?
Hymenolepis nana?
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
1.
penetration?


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Endotoxin
Bacterial source
Toxicity
Stability to heat
Antigenicity
Fever
production
A.
A.
Fill out the following
Fill out the following
tables.
tables.
----
--
--
--------------------------------
--
Property
Property
Innate
Innate
Immunity
Immunity
Adaptive immunity
Adaptive immunity
Activity at birth
Response time
Specificity for microorganisms
Cells involved


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b.
Must remain longer in liquid form
c.
With preventable adverse effects
d.
Toxic to microbial cell but not to humans
3.
What is the method of antibiotic susceptibility testing used to determine the
bacteriostatic and bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic?
a.
Disc diffusion method
c.


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Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
A.
A.
MATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
I.
I.
Match the stage of infection (Column A) with the corresponding
Match the stage of infection (Column A) with the corresponding
events
events
occurring during each stage (Column B).
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Incubation period
a.
Signs and symptoms of the
2.
Prodromal period
patient start to decline
3.
Period of illness
b.
Period of maximal invasion
4.
Period of defervescence
c.
Recovery period
5.
Period of convalescence
d.
Early but mild symptoms;
usually
non-specific manifestations
e.


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Section:
Date:
A.
A.
Match the protozoans in Column A with their
Match the protozoans in Column A with their
respective vectors in Column B.
respective vectors in Column B.
Column A
Column
B
1.
Trypanosoma cruzi
a.
Phlebotomus and
Lutzomyia fly (sandfly)
2.
Trypanosoma brucei
b.
Anopheles
mosquito
3.
Leishmania sp.
c.
Triatomine/reduviid
bug


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7.
7.
Which of the following is a characteristic of
Which of the following is a characteristic of
Hymenolepis nana?
Hymenolepis nana?
a.
The freshwater fish is its intermediate host.
b.
The infective stage is the cysticercoid
larvae.
c.
It may be transmitted by direct contact.
d.
Infection mimics pinworm infection because
of pruritus ani.
8.
cestodes?
The plerocercoid larva is the infective stage
of which of the following
a.
Taenia solium
c.
Diphyllobothrium
latum
b.
Hymenolepis nana
d.
Echinococcus
granulosus
9.
solium?
Which of the following differentiates Taenia
saginata from Taenia
a.
Its intermediate host is cattle.
b.
The scolex contains rostellum.
c.
Each proglottid contains about 7-15 uterine
branches.
d.
Manifests with larva within a cyst.


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contaminated
3.
Acanthamoeba sp.
food or water
4.
Giardia lamblia
c.
Sexual contact
5.
Trichomonas vaginalis
d.
Transnasal
6.
Toxoplasma gondii
e.
Transplacental
7.
Plasmodium sp.
f.
b and e only
8.
Leishmania donovani
9.
Balantidium coli
10.
Trypanosoma cruzi
A.
A.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
space provided.
1.
Which of the following is correct regarding
cestodes?
a.
The body is divided into segments called strobila.
b.
All are hermaphroditic.
c.
The head contains an organ for attachment called rostellum.
d.
The infective stage is the embryonated egg.
2.
Hydatid cyst is associated with which of the following cestodes?
a.
Diphyllobothrium latum
c.
Hymenolepis nana
b.
Echinococcus granulosus
d.
Taenia saginata


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Fasciolopsis buski
Fasciola hepatica
Parasite
Parasite
Site of Infection
Site of Infection
Associated Complication
Associated Complication
Schistosoma
japonicum
Schistosoma mansoni
Schistosoma
haematobium
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
space provided.
1.
infection?
Which of the following is the most common parasitic intestinal
a.
Trichuriasis
c.
Ascariasis
b.
Trichinosis
d.
Enterobiasis
2.
What is the active feeding form of hookworms?
a.
Filariform larva
c.
Rhabditiform larva
b.
Fork-tailed cercaria
d.
Metacercaria


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Hymenolepis nana?
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
provided.
1.
penetration?
Which of the following trematodes is acquired through skin
a.
Paragonimus westermani
c.
Clonorchis sinensis
b.
Schistosoma haematobium
d.
Fasciola hepatica
2.
pulmonary tuberculosis?
Which of the following trematodes cause infection that mimics
a.
Paragonimus westermani
c.
Clonorchis sinensis
b.
Schistosoma haematobium
d.
Fasciola hepatica
3.
animals act as important
reservoirs?
Which of the following is the only schistosome where domestic
a.
Schistosoma mansoni
c.
Schistosoma haematobium
b.
Schistosoma japonicum
4.
Which of the following trematodes can cause obstructive jaundice?
a.
Fasciolopsis buski
c.
Schistosoma mansoni
b.
Paragonimus westermani
d.
Fasciola hepatica
5.
Which of the following causes a disease that mimics duodenal ulcer?
a.
Fasciolopsis buski
c.
Schistosoma mansoni


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philippinensis
Trichinella spiralis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Parasite
Parasite
Mode of
Mode of
Transmission
Transmission
Characteristic
Characteristic
Manifestation
Manifestation
Diagnosis
Diagnosis
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
LEARNING OBJECTIVE
in analyzing cases pertaining to skin infections.
At the end of the laboratory period, the student should be able to
develop the skills
A.
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case studies, then answer the
following
ruptured and formed crusts.
Case No. 1: A 6-year-old boy was brought to a physician because of
skin lesions
described as having "honey-colored crusts" over the lower
extremities. The
condition started a week prior to consultation as vesicular lesions
which later
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
b.
Erysipelas
c.
Necrotizing fasciitis
d.
Impetigo
2.


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symptoms. Fungal infection is suspected.
1.
What is the probable diagnosis?
a.
Tinea corporis
c.
Chromoblastomycosis
b.
Tinea versicolor
d.
Tinea nigra
2.
What is the most likely etiologic agent?
a.
Exophiala werneckii
c.
Fonseca pedrosoi
b.
Microsporum canis
d.
Malassezia furfur
3.
What is the characteristic microscopic appearance of the causative
agent when stained with 10% KOH?
a.
"Spaghetti and meatballs"
c.
Daisy-like arrangement
b.
Favic chandelier
d.
Teardrop microconidia
3.
3.
What is the distinctive characteristic of the causative agent?
What is the distinctive characteristic of the causative agent?
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Fever blister
a.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
2.
Osteochondritis
b.
Streptococcus pyogenes
3.
Condylomata acuminata
c.
Curvularia sp.
4.
Mycetoma or Madura foot
d.
Human papillomavirus
5.
Rose gardener's disease
e.
Clostridium perfringens
6.
Myonecrosis or Gas
gangrene
f.
Exophiala werneckii
7.
Necrotizing fasciitis
g.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
8.


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3.
Which of the following is a characteristic of Trichuris
trichiura?
a.
Also known as pinworm
b.
Resembles a "whip"
c.
Causes iron deficiency anemia
d.
Larva is encysted in muscle tissue.
4.
Which of the following is correct regarding Wuchereria
bancrofti?
a.
It is the more common cause of elephantiasis.
b.
The infective stage is metacercaria.
c.
It is transmitted by bite of ticks.
d.
Ground itch appears during the invasive stage.
5.
flat on one side?
Which of the following nematodes produces eggs that are oval and
a.
Ascaris lumbricoides
c.
Trichinella spiralis
b.
Enterobius vermicularis
d.
Trichuris trichiura
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided.
space provided.
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Capillaria philippinensis
a.
Threadworm
2.
Necator americanus
b.
Pinworm
3.
Strongyloides stercoralis
c.
Malayan filarial worm
4.
Enterobius vermicularis
d.
Whipworm
5.


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Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Bordetella pertussis
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
4.
4.
The patient is in what stage of the disease
The patient is in what stage of the disease
process?
process?
a.
Catarrhal stage
c.
Convalescent stage
b.
Paroxysmal stage
d.
Prodromal stage
5.
Which of the following is the best way to prevent this infection?
a.
Good hygiene
c.
Take vitamin C
b.
Drink plenty of water
d.
Vaccination
patient had lost weight due to loss of appetite.
Case No. 2: A 35-year-old male construction worker complains of blood-
streaked
sputum. The condition started 1 month prior to consultation as dry, non
productive cough of 2 weeks' duration associated with afternoon rises in body
temperature and night sweats. The wife noticed that since the condition started
the
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Bronchiolitis
c.
Pneumonia
b.
Pulmonary tuberculosis
d.
Pulmonary anthrax
2.
What is the most probable causative agent?
a.


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d.
Gram stain
4.
4.
The patient is in what stage of the disease
The patient is in what stage of the disease
process?
process?
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
a.
Pontiac fever
Respiratory syncytial
virus
2.
b.
Walking pneumonia
SARS-CoV-2
3.
c.
Viral pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
4.
Legionella pneumophila
COVID-19
d.
5.
e.
Bronchiolitis in
infants
Adenovirus
LEARNING
LEARNING
OBJECTIVE
OBJECTIVE
DECHOII
Date
Section:
Date:
Vame:
Score:
3.
3.
Which of the following antigens is
Which of the following antigens is
responsible for the antiphagocytic
responsible for the antiphagocytic
characteristic of the causative
characteristic of the causative
agent?
agent?
a.
Somatic antigen
c.
Capsular antigen
b.
Flagellar antigen
d.
a and c only
4.
What is the best specimen to collect at this
stage of infection?
a.
Urine
c.
Blood
b.
Stool
d.
Sputum
5.
Which of the following best describes a
carrier for this infection?
a.
more than 1 year
Asymptomatic carriage of the


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a. Chancroid
c.
inguinale
b. Syphilis
d.
Genital herpes
2. What is the most likely etiologic
agent?
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
C
Chlamydia
trachomatis
b. Treponema pallidum
d.
Herpes Simplex
type 2
3. Which of the following tests is a
specific
treponemal
test?
a. VDRL
-
FTA-ABS
b. Rapid plasma reagin test
d.
Darkfield
microscopy
Infe
Infe
cti
cti
ons
ons
1.
1.
Which of the following statements is
Which of the following statements is
correct regarding UTI?
correct regarding UTI?
a.
It is more common in males than
females.
b.
Unprotected sexual intercourse
can predispose one to UTI.
c.
Hypertensive individuals are more
susceptible to UTI.
d.
Anatomic abnormalities such as
kinking of the pelvis can lead to
UTI.
2.
Which of the following is the most
common cause of UTI?
a.
Escherichia coli
c.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b.
Staphylococcus aureus
d.
Enterococcus faecalis
3.
of renal stones?
Which of the following organisms is
associated with the development
a.
Serratia marcescens
c.
Proteus mirabilis


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negative.
to the hospital because of fever and
yellowish discoloration of the skin and
sclerae. On physical examination, the liver
is enlarged and tender. Laboratory results
reveal (+) HBsAg. Gram stain was
1.
What is your primary consideration for this
case?
a.
Salmonellosis
c.
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
b.
Liver cirrhosis
d.
Viral hepatitis
2.
What is the most likely etiologic agent?
a.
Salmonella typhi
c.
Shigella dysenteriae
b.
Alcoholism
d.
Hepadnavirus
3.
The most likely etiologic agent is
transmitted by the following
methods, except:
a.
Fecal-oral
c.
Sexual contact
b.
Blood transfusion
d.
Parenteral
3.
3.
Which of the following antigens is
Which of the following antigens is
responsible for the antiphagocytic
responsible for the antiphagocytic
characteristic of the causative
characteristic of the causative
agent?
agent?
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Fulminant infection
a.
Hepatitis A
virus
2.
Most common cause of post
b.
Hepatitis B virus
transfusion hepatitis
c.


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3.
Generalized maculopapular
rash
including palms and soles
c.
d.
Latent syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
4.
Condylomata lata
5.
Aortic aneurysm
Column
Column
A
A
Column B
Column B
Syphilis
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Gonorrhea
Congenital transmission
Neonatal transmission
Systemic spread
Presence of skin lesions
Purulent discharge
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which later
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
b.
Erysipelas
c.
Necrotizing fasciitis
d.
Impetigo
2.
What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?
3.
3.
What is the distinctive characteristic of the causative agent?
What is the distinctive characteristic of the causative agent?
a.
Produces water-soluble pigments
b.
Produces golden yellow colonies
c.
Strict anaerobe
d.
Produces endospores
4.
What diagnostic tests would you request to establish the diagnosis?
a.
Gram stain
c.
Serology
b.
Culture
d.
Bacitracin test
5.
The causative agent will yield a positive result in which of the
following tests?
a.
Optochin test
c.
Coagulase test
b.
Bacitracin test
d.
Urea test
Case No. 2: A 15-year-old girl consulted a physician because of hypopigmented
macules over her right cheek. On physical examination, the lesions appear
scaly
and dry, with a "chalky" appearance. There are no other accompanying signs
and


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Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Capillaria philippinensis
a.
Threadworm
2.
Necator americanus
b.
Pinworm
3.
Strongyloides stercoralis
c.
Malayan filarial worm
4.
Enterobius vermicularis
d.
Whipworm
5.
Trichinella spiralis
e.
New World
hookworm
6.
Trichuris trichiura
f.
Pudoc worm
7.
Brugia malayi
g.
Muscle worm
Parasite
Parasite
Mode of
Mode of
Transmission
Transmission
Characteristic
Characteristic
Manifestation
Manifestation
Diagnosis
Diagnosis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichuris trichiura
Enterobius vermicularis
Strongyloides
stercoralis
Necator americanus
Capillaria


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the
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Bronchiolitis
c.
Pneumonia
b.
Pulmonary tuberculosis
d.
Pulmonary anthrax
2.
What is the most probable causative agent?
a.
Adenovirus
c.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
d.
Bacillus anthracis
3.
Which of the following best characterizes the causative agent?
a.
Gram-positive bacilli, encapsulated
b.
Acid-fast, obligate aerobic bacilli
c.
Facultative gram-negative bacilli
d.
Gram-positive bacilli, aerobic spore-former
4.
diagnose this infection?
Which of the following tests would be the best for you to request to
a.
Tuberculin skin test
b.
Sputum examination with acid-fast stain
c.
Chest X-ray


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d.
Human papillomavirus
5.
Rose gardener's disease
e.
Clostridium perfringens
6.
Myonecrosis or Gas
gangrene
f.
Exophiala werneckii
7.
Necrotizing fasciitis
g.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
8.
Stitch abscess
h.
Herpes simplex virus
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
LEARNING OBJECTIVE
At the end of the laboratory period, the student should be able to develop the
skills
in analyzing cases pertaining to infections of the respiratory tract.
A.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case studies, then answer the following
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space provided.
Case No. 1: A 7-year-old child was brought to the emergency room because
of fever and prolonged episode of forceful, dry hacking cough with a distinct
inspiratory whoop. The patient has no history of immunization.
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Pneumonia
c.
Pertussis
b.
Bronchitis
d.
Diphtheria
2.
What is the most probable causative agent?
a.


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stage of infection?
a.
Urine
c.
Blood
b.
Stool
d.
Sputum
5.
Which of the following best describes a
carrier for this infection?
a.
more than 1 year
Asymptomatic carriage of the
bacteria in the gallbladder for
b.
1 year
Asymptomatic carriage of the
bacteria in the blood for more
than
c.
6 months
Asymptomatic carriage of the
bacteria in the kidneys for
d.
6 months
Asymptomatic carriage of the
bacteria in the gallbladder for
Case No. 2: A 25-year-old male was brought


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agent?
agent?
Column A
Column A
Column B
Column B
1.
Fulminant infection
a.
Hepatitis A
virus
2.
Most common cause of post
b.
Hepatitis B virus
transfusion hepatitis
c.
Hepatitis C
virus
3.
Vaccine preventable hepatitis
d.
Hepatitis D
virus
4.
Occur as co-infection or super
infection with HBV
e.
Hepatitis E virus
5.
A DNA virus
f.
b and c only
6.
Can progress to chronicity
g.
b, c, and d only
7.
Can progress to
hepatocellular
carcinoma
h.
a and b only
Infe
Infe
cti
cti
ons
ons
Nan
me:
Score:
Sect
cion:
Date:
LEARNING OBJEC
TIVE
At the end of the laboratory period, the studer nalyzing cases pertaining to infections of the ge
-
A.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the casquestions. Write the letter of the correct answ
8
Case No. 1: A 28-year-old seaman consulted nodule on the shaft of his penis that is hard a
enlargement of his inguinal lymph nodes. The smooth edges.
nd pai
nless
accompanied
by painless
1. What is the most probable diagn
osis?
Granuloma


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nurse.
1. Ho
w will you
manage
the
patient?
a.
Wash the
wound
with
n soap and
ru
nning water.
b.
Rabies
vaccine
IM for
5 days (0,
3,
7, 14, and 28)
c.
Infiltration
of RIG aro
und the
bite
site
d.
All of the
above
2. Wh
ich of the
following
syr
mptoms is
mo
ost
characteristic
of rabies?
a.
Seizures
c.
Hydrophobia
b.
Blurring of
vision
d.
Flaccid
paralysis
The second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
The second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
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c.
Most present with inapparent infection
d.
Not preventable by vaccination
3.
infants?
Which of the following is the most common cause of meningitis
in
a.
Escherichia coli
c.
Flavivirus
b.
Haemophilus influenzae
d.
Neisseria meningitidis
4.
Flaccid paralysis occurs in the following diseases,
except:
a.
Infant botulism
c.
Poliomyelitis
b.
Tetanus
d.
Rabies
4.
4.
Which of the following are possible modes of
Which of the following are possible modes of
transmission of rabies?
transmission of rabies?
a.
a.
Candida albicans
Candida albicans
c.
c.
Cryptococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans
b.
Histoplasma capsulatum
d.
Coccidioides immitis
I.
Column
B.
Column A
MATCHING TYPE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
Match the clinical presentation in Column A with the type of leprosy in
Column B
1.
2.
Highly infectious
Complete sensory loss
a.
Tuberculoid leprosy
b.
Lepromatous leprosy
3.
Present with
hypopigmented
lesions
c.
Both a and b
d.
Neither a nor b
4.
5.


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9.
Inclusion conjunctivitis
a.
a.
Candida albicans
Candida albicans
c.
c.
Cryptococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
1.
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
German measles
c.
Roseola infantum
b.
Measles
d.
Erythema infectiosum
2.
What is the most likely causative agent?
a.
Rubella virus
c.
Human herpes virus 6
b.
Parvovirus B19
d.
Rubeola virus
3.
What do you call the pathognomonic enanthem associated with
this
disease?
a.
Rose spots
c.
Forscheimer spots
b.
Koplik's spots
d.
Slapped cheek
appearance
4.
What is the most common complication associated with this
infectious disease?
a.
Pneumonia
b.
Otitis media
c.
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
d.
Crippling arthritis
5.
Which of the following exanthems is not vaccine-preventable?
a.
Measles
c.
Rubella
b.
Roseola infantum
d.
Chickenpox
6.
Which of the following exanthems present with vesicular lesions?
a.
Fifth disease
c.
Smallpox
I.
I.


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3.
Painful vesicles along the
c.
Chickenpox
dermatome
d.
Zika
4.
Totally eradicated by
e.
Smallpox
vaccination
f.
Shingles
5.
Itchy vesicles in crops in
different stages
g.
Rubella
6.
Crippling arthritis
7.
Branny desquamation
8.
Post-auricular
lymphadenopathy
9.
Subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis
10.
Congenital heart defect
II.
Match the infection in Column A with the causative agent in Column B.
Column A
Column B
1.
Measles
a.
Human herpes virus
6
2.
Erythema infectiosum
b.
Varicella-zoster virus
3.
Chickenpox
c.
Parvovirus B19
4.
German measles
d.
Rubella virus
5.
Roseola infantum
e.
Rubeola virus
I.
I.
Match the clinical presentation in Column A with the condition in Column
Match the clinical presentation in Column A with the condition in Column
B.
B.
Name:
Name:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
LEARNING OBJECTIVE
At the end of the laboratory period, the student should be able to develop the
skills
in analyzing cases related to selected systemic infections.
A.


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d.
It may present with morbilliform rash.
4.
The vector of this infection is characterized by which of the following?
a.
Lays eggs in clear stagnant water
b.
Capable of long-range flights
c.
Nocturnal biter
d.
Male mosquitoes bite
5.
What
are
the
components
hemorrhagic fever?
of
WHO's
definition
of
dengue
a.
Fever
c.
Thrombocytopenia
b.
Bleeding
d.
a, b, and c
B.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space
provided.
1.
Which of the following is an arthropod-borne infection?
a.
Chikungunya
c.
Q fever
b.
Infectious mononucleosis
d.
Leptospirosis
2.
Which
of
the
following
heterophile antibodies?
produces
atypical
lymphocytes
and
a.
Cytomegalovirus
c.
Epstein-Barr Virus
b.
Leptospira interrogans
d.
Borrelia burgdorferi
3.
Camel back pattern of fever is a manifestation of which of the
following infections?
a.
Leptospirosis
c.
Lyme disease
b.
Dengue fever
d.
Infectious
mononucleosis
4.
How can you prevent arthropod-borne infections?
a.


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b.
Staphylococcus aureus
d.
Enterococcus faecalis
3.
of renal stones?
Which of the following organisms is
associated with the development
a.
Serratia marcescens
c.
Proteus mirabilis
b.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d.
Escherichia coli
4.
pigment known as prodigiosin?
Which of the following organisms
produces red colonies due to a
a.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c.
Candida albicans
b.
Serratia marcescens
d.
Proteus mirabilis
5.
urethritis?
Which of the following is a common
cause of non-gonococcal
a.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b.
Chlamydia trachomatis
d.
Escherichia coli
Column
Column
A
A
Column B
Column B
1.
Gummas
a.
Primary syphilis
2.
Chancre
b.
Secondary syphilis


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second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of


key: chroma:document
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d.
All of the above
3.
3.
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
d.
d.
migrans.
migrans.
Column A
Column B
1.
Chikungunya
a.
Tick
2.
Scrub typhus
b.
Mosquito
3.
Dengue fever
c.
Louse
4.
Infectious mononucleosis
d.
Flea
5.
Relapsing fever
e.
Mite
6.
Rocky Mountain spotted
fever
f.
None of the above
7.
Zika
8.
Q fever
9.
Lyme disease
10.
Leptospirosis
c.
respective insect vectors in
Column B.
The severe infection is called Weil-Felix disease.
It presents with skin lesion known as erythema chronicum
MATCHING TYPE: Match the following diseases in Column A
with their
A
A
Alkylating agents, 87-88
Alkylating agents, 87-88
Abortive poliomyelitis, 395
Allergic phenomena, 157
Acanthamoeba, 182-184
Allergic reaction, 118
Acetylated sugar, 117
Alpha hemolysis, 14
Acidophiles, 46
Amantadine, 299
Acquired Immunodeficiency
Syndrome
Amoebiasis, 174-176
(AIDS), 357-359
Anaerobes, 5, 45
Actinomycetes, 282, 319
Anaerobic media, 15-16


key: chroma:document
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Column B
1.
2.
Highly infectious
Complete sensory loss
a.
Tuberculoid leprosy
b.
Lepromatous leprosy
3.
Present with
hypopigmented
lesions
c.
Both a and b
d.
Neither a nor b
4.
5.
Leonine facies
Negative lepromin test
II.
Match each of the items in column A with the causative agent in column B.
Column A
Column B
1.
Transmitted by bite of ticks
a.
Clostridium botulinum
2.
Trismus and risus
sardonicus
b.
Chlamydia trachomatis
3.
Associated with
unpasteurized honey
c.
Haemophilus ducreyi
d.
Listeria monocytogenes
e.
Japanese B encephalitis
4.
5.
Inhalation of spores from
pigeon droppings
Ophthalmia neonatorum
virus
f.
Neisseria meningitidis
g.
Cryptococcus neoformans
6.
7.
Cold-loving bacteria
Waterhouse-Friderichsen
syndrome
h.
Adenovirus
i.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
8.
Swimming pool
conjunctivitis
j.
Clostridium tetani


key: chroma:document
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a.
Measles
c.
Rubella
b.
Roseola infantum
d.
Chickenpox
6.
Which of the following exanthems present with vesicular lesions?
a.
Fifth disease
c.
Smallpox
I.
I.
Match the clinical presentation in Column A with the condition in Column
Match the clinical presentation in Column A with the condition in Column
B.
B.
Column A
Column B
1.
Forscheimer spots
a.
Measles
2.
"Slapped cheek" appearance
b.
Fifth disease


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Score:
Score:
Section:
Date:
LEARNING OBJECTIVE
At the end of the laboratory period, the student should be able to develop the
skills
in analyzing cases related to selected systemic infections.
A.
CASE ANALYSIS. Read and analyze the case study, then answer the following
questions. Write the letter of the correct answer on the space provided.
Case: A 7-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room because of nose
bleeding (epistaxis) and vomiting of blood (hematemesis). The patient was
apparently well until 7 days prior to admission when the patient developed
moderate- to high-grade fever, headache, and muscle pains over the lower
extremities. Two days prior to admission, maculopapular rashes were noted
over the trunk and extremities. Few minutes prior to admission, the patient had
3.
3.
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
a.
It is caused by a DNA virus.
b.
The vector is Aedes aegypti.
c.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
following infections?
a.
Leptospirosis
c.
Lyme disease
b.
Dengue fever
d.
Infectious
mononucleosis
4.
How can you prevent arthropod-borne infections?
a.
Destroy breeding places of insects .
b.
Wear thick clothing.
c.
Apply insect repellants.
3.
3.
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Adenovirus, 24, 293
gastrointestinal, 278, 343
Adhesins, 143, 276
pulmonary, 278, 312
Aedes aegypti, 417-418
Anthropophilic, 280
Aedes albopictus, 420
Antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous
Aerobes, 5, 45
colitis, 343
African Sleeping Sickness, 193–194
Antibiotics, 93
AIDS
classification of, 94-96
See Acquired Immunodeficiency
Antibodies, 113
Syndrome
structure of, 113
Airborne transmission, 141
Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity,
Alcohols, 86
120
Algae, 25
Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity,
Alkalophiles, 46
120-123
A
A
Alkylating agents, 87-88
Alkylating agents, 87-88
C
C
CMV
CMV
Calcium dipicolinate, 37
See Cytomegalovirus
Candida albicans, 320, 349
Coccidiodes immitis, 387
Capillaria philippinensis, 258-261
Colitis, 317
Capnophiles, 45
Commensalism, 135, 153
Carbuncle, 273
Communicable disease, 145
Cell wall, 24, 25, 32
Complement system, 116
Cell-mediated immunity, 116
pathways, 116-117
Cellulitis, 275
Condyloma acuminatum, 283
Central lymphoid organs, 105


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Alpha hemolysis, 14
Acidophiles, 46
Amantadine, 299
Acquired Immunodeficiency
Syndrome
Amoebiasis, 174-176
(AIDS), 357-359
Anaerobes, 5, 45
Actinomycetes, 282, 319
Anaerobic media, 15-16
Acute bacterial meningitis, 384
Anaphylactic hypersensitivity, 115,
Acute bacterial pneumonia, 302
118-120
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis,
Ancylostoma duodenale, 252-254
320
Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2
Acute serum sickness, 124
(ACE 2), 292
Acute viral aseptic meningitis, 388-389
Animalcules, 5
See Encephalitis
Anthrax, forms of, 278
Acyclovir, 285, 356, 410
cutaneous, 278


key: chroma:document
string_value:
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Dermatophytes, 280
Echinococcus granulosus, 219-221
Dessication, 82
Ectoparasites, 154
Diarrhea, 326-327
Efflux pump, 98
invasive, 326
Ehrlich, Paul, 5
non-invasive, 326
Ehrlichia chaffeensis, 428
Diatoms, 26
Ehrlichia sennetsu, 428
Differential media, 15
Ehrlichiosis, 425
Digenea, 225
ELISA
Dinoflagellate, 26
See Enzyme-linked immunosorbent
Diphtheria, 299-300
assay
Diphtheria/Tetanus toxoid and
acellular
Encephalitis, 383, 388
pertussis (DTaP) vaccine, 300
Encephalomyelitis, 383
Diphtheria toxin, 144, 299
Encystation, 171
Diphyllobothriasis, 216-217
Endemic typhus, 425, 427
Diphyllobothrium latum, 215–217
Endoflagella, 35
Diplococci, 31
Endogenous, 145
Discrete erythematous, 393
Endoparasites, 154
Disinfection, 68
Endospores, 37
Dorner stain, 278
Endotoxins, 143
D
D
Downey cells, 422
Downey cells, 422
Enrichment media, 14
Enrichment media, 14
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282
Entamoeba histolytica, 172
Exanthems, 403
Enteric fever, 337
Excystation, 171


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Chikungunya, 420
Cryptococcus gatti, 387
Chlamydia trachomatis, 353, 376
Cryptococcus neoformans, 141, 387
Chocolate agar, 14
Culture media, 13–16
Cholera, 341
classification according to chemical
Chromoblastomycosis, 281
composition, 13
Chronic bronchitis, 301
classification according to
functional
Chronic disease, 146
type, 14–16
classification according to physical
Clostridium difficile, 342-343
Clostridium perfringens, 277, 331,
342
Clostridium tetani, 389
Classical dengue fever, 418
Clindamycin, 96
Clostridium botulinum, 391
state, 13
Cutaneous mycoses, 280-281
Cysticercosis, 214
Cystitis, 368
Cytomegalovirus (CMV), 423
Cytomegalovirus infection, 423-424
Cytotoxins, 143, 332
C
C
CMV
CMV
D
D
Downey cells, 422
Downey cells, 422
Death phase, 47
Drug modification, 97
Also decline phase
Drug resistance, mechanisms of, 97-
99
Decontamination, 64
acquired, 97
Definitive hosts, 155
intrinsic, 97
Delta hepatitis, 320
Dry heat, methods of, 80-82
Delta virus
DTaP
See Hepatitis D virus


key: chroma:document
string_value:
3.
3.
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
Which of the following is correct regarding this case?
a.
It is caused by a DNA virus.
b.
The vector is Aedes aegypti.
c.
It is characterized by atypical lymphocytes.


key: chroma:document
string_value:
assay
Fasciolopsiasis, 237
(ELISA), 359
Fasciolopsis buski, 236-237
Eosinophils, 107
Fifth disease
Epidemic typhus, 425
See Erythema infectiosum
Epidermophyton, 280
Filariasis, 262-264
Epiglottitis, 306
Filtration, 82
Epitope, 104
Fimbriae
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), 422
See Pili
Erratic parasites, 155
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome, 352
Erysipelas, 275
Flaccid paralysis, 391, 395
Erythema infectiosum, 408
Flagella, classiffication of, 35
Erythrogenic toxin, 295
Flavivirus, 398
Eschar, 272, 427
Fleming, Alexander, 5
Escherichia coli, 334-336
Flora, 53
enteroaggregative/adherent E. coli
Flukes, 225
(EAEC), 335
Fluorescent Treponemal
Antibody
enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), 335
Absorption (FTA-ABS), 351
enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), 335
Focal infection, 146
enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), 335
Folliculitis, 273
Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC),
336
Fomites, 70, 284
Eukaryotes, 21
Food-borne botulism, 391
Enrichment media, 14
Enrichment media, 14
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Hepatitis E Virus (HEV), 324
Human papillomavirus (HPV), 282, 357
Hepatitis G Virus (HGV/GB virus C), 325
Humoral immunity, 113
Herman's sign, 418
Hydatid cyst, 219
Herpes gladiatorum, 284
Hydatidosis, 221
Herpes labialis (fever blister or cold sore),
Hydrophobia, 396
284
Hymenolepiasis, 218
Herpes simplex infections, 284
Hymenolepis nana, 217–219
Herpes simplex virus (HSV), 284, 355,
379
Hypersensitivity reactions, 118-128
Herpes zoster, 411
Herpetic whitlow, 284
I
Heterotrophs, 44
Iatrogenic infection, 64
HEV
Immune complex-mediated
See Hepatitis E virus
hypersensitivity, 123–124
HGV
Immune response, 112
See Hepatitis G virus
Immune system, 105
Higly active anti-retroviral treatment
Immunity, 109–111, 113, 116
(HAART), 359
adaptive, 111
Histoplasma capsulatum, 140, 387
cell-mediated, 116
HIV
humoral, 113
See Human immunodeficiency virus
innate, 109–110
Hooke, Robert, 5
Immunization, 127
Hookworm infection, 253-254
types of, 127
Hordeolum, 273
Immunoassay, 301
Immunofluorescence, 301


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Communicable disease, 145
Cell wall, 24, 25, 32
Complement system, 116
Cell-mediated immunity, 116
pathways, 116-117
Cellulitis, 275
Condyloma acuminatum, 283
Central lymphoid organs, 105
Condyloma latum, 350
Central nervous system, 384
Condylomata acuminata, 357
Cervical cancer, 357
Conjugation, 35, 97
Cestodes, 209-221
Conjunctivitis, 375-379
extra-intestinal, 219-221
Contagious disease, 145
intestinal, 210-219
Contamination, 64, 135
Chagas disease, 191-192
Coronavirus, 291
Chancre, 193, 349
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, 299
Chancroid, 349, 354
COVID-19, 292
Chemical disinfectants
Coxiella burnetti, 427
classification of, 85
Croup, 296
Chickenpox, 409-410
Cryptococcal meningitis, 388


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Folliculitis, 273
Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC),
336
Fomites, 70, 284
Eukaryotes, 21
Food-borne botulism, 391
Enrichment media, 14
Enrichment media, 14
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282
Hemolytic reactions, 14
Hemolytic reactions, 14
Hortaea werneckii, 279
Hortaea werneckii, 279
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome, 334, 335
Host, 142
Hemorrhagic colitis, 336
Hot air oven, 81
Hemorrhagic cystitis, 294
HPV
Henipavirus, 431
See Human papillomavirus
Heparnavirus, 322
HSV
Hepadnavirus, 323
See Herpes simplex virus
Hepatitis, 317, 322-325
Human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV), 397
Hepatitis A Virus (HAV), 322-323
Human herpes virus, 407
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV), 323
Human Herpesviridae, 284, 355
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV), 323-324
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),
Hepatitis D Virus (HDV/Delta Virus), 324
357, 358


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Downey cells, 422
Enrichment media, 14
Enrichment media, 14
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282
Eumycotic mycetoma, 282
Entamoeba histolytica, 172
Exanthems, 403
Enteric fever, 337
Excystation, 171
Enteric hepatitis, 324
Exfoliative toxin, 273
Enteric viruses, 327
Exogenous, 145
Enteritis necroticans, 342
Exotoxins, 150
Enteritis, 317
Eye infections, 375-379
Enterobiasis, 248-249
bacterial, 376-377
Enterobius vermicularis, 246-249
viral, 378-379
Enterococcus faecalis, 367
Enterococcus, 65, 66
F
Enterocolitis, 337
Facultative organisms, 45
Enterotest, 178, 233
Facultative parasites, 154
Enterotoxin, 329
Fascioliasis, 233
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Drug resistance, mechanisms of, 97-
99
Decontamination, 64
acquired, 97
Definitive hosts, 155
intrinsic, 97
Delta hepatitis, 320
Dry heat, methods of, 80-82
Delta virus
DTaP
See Hepatitis D virus
See Diphtheria/Tetanus toxoid and
Denaturing agents, 324
acellular pertussis vaccine
Dengue fever, 417-419
Dysentery, 317
Dengue hemorrhagic fever, 418
Dyspnea, 300
Dengue shock syndrome
See Dengue hemorrhagic fever
E
Dengvaxia vaccine, 419
Early congenital syphilis, 350
Dental calculus, 319
EBV
Dental caries, 319
See Epstein-Barr virus
Dental plaques, 319
Echinococcosis, 221


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Incubation period, 147
Kanagawa hemolysin, 331
Indigenous flora, 4
Keratitis, 183
Infant botulism, 391
Kinyoun stain, 12
Infection, 136, 138–142
Klebsiella pneumoniae, 307
classification of, 145
Klebsiella, 296
control of, 63
Koch, Robert, 5, 136
factors of, 138–142
Koch's postulates, 5, 136–138
modes of transmission, 140–141
Koplik's spots, 404
portal of exit, 140
Infectious diseases, 4
L
classification of, 145–146
Lag phase, 47
stages of, 147–148
Large intestines, 326–343
Infectious hepatitis, 322
Late congenital syphilis, 350
Infectious mononucleosis, 422–
423
Latent disease, 146
Infective stage, 171
Latent syphilis, 350
Infestation, 154
Leeuwenhoek, Anton van, 5
Influenza, 297–299
Legionella pneumophila, 307–308
antigens of, 297
Legionnaire's disease, 308
immunologic types of, 297
Leishmania braziliensis complex, 188–
189
Influenza A, 297
Leishmania donovani complex, 186–188
Influenza B, 297
Leishmania tropica complex, 189–190
Influenza C, 297
Leprosy, 392–394
Infrared rays, 82


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Obligate parasites, 154
PAS Stain
Occupational exposure, 64
See Periodic acid-Schiff stain
Onychomycosis, 280
Pasteur, Louis, 5
Open flame, 81
Pasteurization, 5, 78–79
Ophthalmiam neonatorum, 352,
377
Pathogen-associated molecular
patterns,
Opisthotonus, 390
110
Oral thrush, 320
Pathogenesis, 157
Organotrophs, 44
Pathogenic stage, 171
Orientia tsutsugamushi, 427
Pathogenicity, 136
Ornithodorus, 431
Pediculosis pubis, 360
Oropharyngeal tuberculosis, 343
Pediculus humanus, 431
Penicillium notatum, 5
Orthomyxoviridae, 297
Peptidoglycan, 24, 32
Oseltamivir, 299
Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stain, 279
Osmophiles, 46
Periodontal disease, 319–320
Osmotic pressure, 83
Periodontitis, 320
Osteochondritis, 276
Perioral erythema, 273
Otalgia, 296
Peripheral lymphoid organs, 105
Otitis externa, 296
Permanent parasites, 154
Otitis media, 296
Personal protective equipment (PPE), 64,
Otorrhea, 296
67–69
Pertussis, 309–310
P
stages of, 309
Papules, 271, 403
catarrhal, 309
Paragonimiasis, 235–236


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Plasmodium spp., 195–201
Pyemia, 136
Platelets, 107
Pyoderma, 274
Platyhelminthes, 209
Pyogenic, 273
Pneumococci, 304
Pneumocystis jirovecii, 359
Q
Pneumonia, 298, 302–305, 405
Q Fever, 425
classifications of, 302
atypical, 302
R
typical, 302
Rabies, 395–398
Poliomyelitis, 394–395
Radiation, 82–83
Poliovirus, 394
Rashes, 349
Pollution, 136
Red flame, 80–81
Polyarthritis, 408
Regan-Lowe charcoal medium, 309
Pontiac fever, 308
Relapsing fever, 430–431
Post-herpetic neuralgia, 411
Reservoir hosts, 155
Post-poliomyelitis syndrome, 395
Retrovirus, 357
PPE
Reverse isolation, 71
See Personal protective equipment
Reverse transcriptase, 357
Prevotella intermedia, 320
Reye's syndrome, 299
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis,
Rhinoviruses, 291
184
Ribavirin, 302
Primary infection, 146
Ribosomes, 36
Primary syphilis, 350
Rickettsia akari, 427
Prodromal period, 147
Rickettsia prowazekii, 427
Proglottids, 210
Rickettsia rickettsii, 426
Prokaryotes, 3, 21
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi, 427


key: chroma:document
string_value:
HIV
humoral, 113
See Human immunodeficiency virus
innate, 109–110
Hooke, Robert, 5
Immunization, 127
Hookworm infection, 253-254
types of, 127
Hordeolum, 273
Immunoassay, 301
Immunofluorescence, 301
Hemolytic reactions, 14
Hemolytic reactions, 14
Hortaea werneckii, 279
Hortaea werneckii, 279
Immunogen, 104
Immunogen, 104
Interstitial pneumonia, 302
Interstitial pneumonia, 302
Immunoglobulins, 113–115
Intestinal capillariasis, 260
classes of, 114–115
Isolation, 70
Immunologic, 144–145
Ixodes, 430
Immunology, 3, 104
Immunopathology, 158
J
Impetigo, 273–274
Japanese B Encephalitis, 398–399
Incidental parasites, 154
Jenner, Edward, 5, 127, 411
Incineration, 81
Inclusion conjunctivitis, 377
K


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Rotavirus, 328
species of, 339
RPR
Shigellae, 339
See Rapid plasma reagin
SIDS
RSV
See Sudden infant death syndrome
See Respiratory syncytial virus
Significant bacteriuria, 369
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR), 351
Sinusitis, 295–296
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV),
301
Skin infections, 272–285
Rubella, 405–407
types of, 272–285
Rubivirus, 406
bacterial, 272–278
Ruska, Ernst, 10
fungal, 279–282
viral, 282–285
S
Skin lesions, 271–272
Sabouraud dextrose agar, 15
Small intestines, 326–343
Salmonella, 143, 336–339
Sound waves, 83
categories of, 336
Spanish flu, 297
Salmonellae, 336
Spastic paralysis, 390
Saprophytes, 4
Sporadic disease, 145
SARS
Sporothrix schenckii, 281
See Severe Acute Respiratory
Sporotrichosis, 281
Syndrome
Spotted fever group, 425
Scarlet fever, 295
SSPE
Schistosomiasis, 228–229
See Subacute sclerosing
Scrofula, 311
panencephalitis
Scrub typhus, 427
Staining, 10–12
Secondary syphilis, 350
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome,
Selective media, 15
273
Sepsis, 65


key: chroma:document
string_value:
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
of the second of the second of the second of the second of the second of the
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of th
second of the second of the second of the second of the second of th
GI YUL
GI YUL
Nan
ne:
Score:
Sect
tion:
Date:
LEARNING
(
OBJECTIVE
* =
ld be able to
develop the
skills central
nervous
system (CNS).
Α.
GIS. Read
and
analyze
the letter
of the
correct
ies, then
answer the
following
ne space
provided.
5
right leg by a
stray dog on
his
orking as an
emergency


key: chroma:document
string_value:
189
Influenza A, 297
Leishmania donovani complex, 186–188
Influenza B, 297
Leishmania tropica complex, 189–190
Influenza C, 297
Leprosy, 392–394
Infrared rays, 82
Inspissation, 79
two forms of, 393
Intermediate hosts, 155
lepromatous, 393
Intermittent parasites, 154
tuberculoid, 393
Immunogen, 104
Immunogen, 104
Interstitial pneumonia, 302
Interstitial pneumonia, 302
Norwalk virus, 328
Norwalk virus, 328
Paramyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431
Paramyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431
Nosocomial, 145
Parasites, 154–155
Nosocomial infections, 276
Parasitic infections, 163–165
Nosocomial pneumonia, 302, 308
Parasitism, 136, 154–155
Nucleoid, 36
Parasitology, 3
Paratenic hosts, 155
O
Parenteral hepatitis, 323


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Ribosomes, 36
Primary syphilis, 350
Rickettsia akari, 427
Prodromal period, 147
Rickettsia prowazekii, 427
Proglottids, 210
Rickettsia rickettsii, 426
Prokaryotes, 3, 21
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi, 427
Proteus mirabilis, 366–367
Rickettsia typhi, 427
Proteus vulgaris, 296
Rickettsialpox, 427
Protozoa, 25, 172–204
Ringworm, 280
characteristics of, 172
Risus sardonicus, 390
Pseudohyphae, 320
Ritter's disease, 273
Pseudomembrane, 300
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, 425
Phycology, 3
Phycology, 3
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, 276,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, 276,
308
308
Rohrer, Heinrich, 10
Rohrer, Heinrich, 10
Sexually transmitted infections, 348–360
Sexually transmitted infections, 348–360
Roseola infantum, 407–408
Shigella, 143, 339


key: chroma:document
string_value:
Permanent parasites, 154
Otitis media, 296
Personal protective equipment (PPE), 64,
Otorrhea, 296
67–69
Pertussis, 309–310
P
stages of, 309
Papules, 271, 403
catarrhal, 309
Paragonimiasis, 235–236
convalescent, 309
Paragonimus westermani, 234–236
paroxysmal, 309
Parainfluenza, 294, 296–297
Pharyngitis, 294
Paralytic poliomyelitis, 390
Pharyngoconjunctival fever, 293
Paralytic shellfish poisoning, 26
Phenolic compounds, 86
Phthirus pubis, 360
Norwalk virus, 328
Norwalk virus, 328
Paramyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431
Paramyxoviridae, 296, 301, 320, 431
Phycology, 3
Phycology, 3
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, 276,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, 276,
308
308
Pili, 35
Psychrophiles, 45
Pityriasis versicolor, 279
Pustules, 272, 403
Pityrosporum orbiculare, 279
Pyelonephritis, 368


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See Subacute sclerosing
Scrofula, 311
panencephalitis
Scrub typhus, 427
Staining, 10–12
Secondary syphilis, 350
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome,
Selective media, 15
273
Sepsis, 65
Staphylococcus aureus, 272–274, 308,
330
Septicemia, 136, 337
Staphylococcus epidermidis, 274
Serratia marcescens, 367
Staphylococcus saprophyticus, 367
Serratia spp., 367
Stationary phase, 47–48
Serum bath, 79
Sterilization, 64, 77
Serum hepatitis, 323
methods of, 78–85
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
Streptococcal gangrene, 275
Rohrer, Heinrich, 10
Rohrer, Heinrich, 10
Sexually transmitted infections, 348–360
Sexually transmitted infections, 348–360


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GI YUL
GI YUL
4.
4.
Which of the following are possible modes of
Which of the following are possible modes of
transmission of rabies?
transmission of rabies?
a.
Bite of animals
b.
Inhalation of spores
c.
Licking of open skin by rabid animals
d.
Inhalation of aerosolized virus from pigeon droppings
5.
Which of the following statements is correct about
rabies?
a.
Not all patients manifest with hydrophobia.
b.
symptoms.
It can be treated successfully even after the appearance of
c.
The initial site of multiplication of rabies virus is the


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rabies?
a.
Not all patients manifest with hydrophobia.
b.
symptoms.
It can be treated successfully even after the appearance of
c.
The initial site of multiplication of rabies virus is the
CNS.
d.
All cold-blooded animals are rabid.
paralysis but there is no sensory loss.
Case No. 2: A 6-year-old child was brought to the hospital
because of weakness of
both lower extremities. The present condition started as low-
grade fever, headache,
sore throat, nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination,
there is flaccid
1.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Meningitis
c.
Poliomyelitis
b.
Encephalitis
d.
Meningococcemia
2.
following?
The causative organism of this case is characterized by which of
the
a.
A flavivirus
b.
Transmitted through bite of a tick


